प्रैक्टिस पेपर — Constitution Part V — The Union

1.According to Article 52 of the Constitution of India, what does this provision establish?

• (A) The existence of the office of the President of India
• (B) The powers of the President of India
• (C) The manner of election of the President
• (D) The term of office of the President

2.Who elects the President of India under Article 54?

• (A) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
• (B) All members of Parliament (elected and nominated) together with all members of state legislatures.
• (C) Only the elected members of the Lok Sabha and the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies.
• (D) The people of India by direct vote.

3.What is the normal term of office of the President of India as provided in Article 56(1)?

• (A) Four years
• (B) Five years
• (C) Six years
• (D) Seven years

4.What is the minimum age required to be eligible for election as President under Article 58 of the Constitution of India?

• (A) 30 years
• (B) 35 years
• (C) 40 years
• (D) 25 years

5.According to Article 60, before entering upon office the President must make and subscribe the oath or affirmation in the presence of which person(s)?

• (A) The Chief Justice of India or, in his absence, the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court available
• (B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
• (C) The Prime Minister of India
• (D) The Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned state

6.According to Article 62(1), when must an election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the President's term be completed?

• (A) Within six months after the term expires
• (B) Before the expiration of the term
• (C) On the day following the expiration
• (D) Any time during the last year of the term

7.During any period when the Vice‑President acts as President under Article 65, what does Article 64 say about his entitlement to salary or allowance payable to the Chairman of the Council of States under Article 97?

• (A) He continues to receive the full salary and allowance.
• (B) He receives a reduced salary as determined by Parliament.
• (C) His entitlement depends on a decision of the President.
• (D) He shall not be entitled to any salary or allowance payable to the Chairman under Article 97.

8.Which office is explicitly mentioned in the Explanation to Article 66 as not to be deemed an 'office of profit' for the purposes of this Article?

• (A) Member of a Municipal Corporation
• (B) Member of Parliament
• (C) Chief Justice of a State High Court
• (D) Governor of any State

9.Can an election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the Vice‑President's term be held after that term has already expired, according to Article 68(1)?

• (A) Yes — it may be held within a short grace period after expiry
• (B) Yes — but only if the President sanctions it
• (C) No — the election may be completed after expiration only in emergency
• (D) No — it must be completed before the expiration of the term

10.Which statement best describes the extent of Parliament's discretion under Article 70?

• (A) Parliament has no discretion and must follow a prescribed formula
• (B) Parliament can only act on directions from the President
• (C) Parliament may act only by special majority prescribed in the Chapter
• (D) Parliament may make such provisions as it thinks fit for the discharge of the President's functions in contingencies not provided for in this Chapter

11.Article 72(1)(c) grants the President power in all cases where the sentence is death, and Article 72(3) states that 'Nothing in sub-clause (c) ... shall affect the power to suspend, remit or commute a sentence of death exercisable by the Governor of a State under any law for the time being in force.' Which of the following correctly states the position from these clauses?

• (A) The Governor's power to commute death sentences is abolished by Article 72 and transferred to the President
• (B) The Governor retains power under state law and that power operates instead of the President's power
• (C) The Governor's power to commute death sentences continues and the President's power under (1)(c) also remains — both powers coexist
• (D) Only the Governor can act if the sentence arises under State law; the President can act only in Union law cases

12.Which statement best captures the scope of Article 74(2) regarding court inquiry?

• (A) Article 74(2) expressly bars courts from inquiring whether the President acted in accordance with ministerial advice.
• (B) Article 74(2) bars inquiry into whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President, but does not itself expressly prohibit courts from examining whether the President acted in accordance with such advice.
• (C) Article 74(2) allows courts to inquire into the content of ministerial advice but not into the fact that advice was given.
• (D) Article 74(2) gives courts exclusive power to determine the validity of ministerial advice.

13.Which statement correctly describes the tenure and removal of the Attorney-General under Article 76?

• (A) The Attorney-General holds office during the pleasure of the President (removable at any time by the President)
• (B) The Attorney-General holds office for a fixed term of five years
• (C) The Attorney-General can be removed only by impeachment by Parliament
• (D) The Attorney-General can be removed only on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India

14.Which clauses of Article 78 impose duties that arise only upon the President's request or requirement?

• (A) Clauses (b) and (c).
• (B) Clause (a) only.
• (C) Clauses (a) and (b).
• (D) All three clauses (a), (b) and (c).

15.Which of the following fields is NOT specified in Article 80(3) as a ground for nomination by the President to the Council of States?

• (A) Law
• (B) Literature
• (C) Science
• (D) Social service

16.Which statement correctly describes the effect of the 'Provided also' clause in Article 82 regarding readjustment until after 2026?

• (A) It postpones readjustment of both allocation of seats and division of constituencies until the first census after 2026 is taken.
• (B) It makes it unnecessary to readjust (i) allocation of seats to States as readjusted on the basis of the 1971 census and (ii) division of each State into territorial constituencies as may be readjusted on the basis of the 2001 census until the relevant figures for the first census taken after the year 2026 have been published.
• (C) It freezes both allocation and constituency division as readjusted on the 1971 census until 2026.
• (D) It requires immediate readjustment of allocation and division based on the 2001 census.

17.Which of the following best describes the scope of clause (c) of Article 84?

• (A) Parliament may prescribe other qualifications by law, but clause (c) does not itself remove or alter the specific age requirements set out in clause (b)
• (B) Parliament may, by ordinary law, alter the age limits specified in clause (b) because clause (c) allows it to prescribe any qualifications
• (C) Only State Legislatures may prescribe additional qualifications under clause (c)
• (D) Clause (c) declares that no law is needed because Article 84 sets out all qualifications exhaustively

18.Which statement correctly distinguishes the President's powers under Article 86?

• (A) The President may address either House or both Houses assembled together, and may also send messages to either House which that House must consider with all convenient despatch.
• (B) The President may address either House or both Houses assembled together, but messages are only sent to both Houses assembled together.
• (C) The President cannot require the attendance of members when addressing Parliament.
• (D) Messages sent by the President under Article 86 need not be considered by the House to which they are sent.

19.Which interpretation best follows from the phrase 'but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote' in Article 88?

• (A) They can never vote in any parliamentary proceeding under any circumstance
• (B) They may vote in committees but not in either House
• (C) They are not entitled to vote by virtue of Article 88 (i.e., this Article does not confer a voting right)
• (D) They can vote only at joint sittings

20.Which of the following best explains the phrase "majority of all the then members of the Council" in Article 90(c)?

• (A) It means a majority of members present and voting on the day the resolution is considered
• (B) It means a majority of the total number of members of the Council at that time (i.e., more than half of the then members)
• (C) It means approval by both Houses of Parliament
• (D) It means a two-thirds majority of the members of the Council

21.Under Article 93 of the Constitution, who is empowered to choose the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People?

• (A) The President of India
• (B) The Council of Ministers
• (C) The House of the People
• (D) The Chief Justice of India

22.When the office of the Speaker of the House of the People is vacant, who shall perform the duties of the office according to Article 95(1)?

• (A) The Deputy Speaker
• (B) The President
• (C) The Prime Minister
• (D) A member of the House appointed by the President

23.Which officers are specified in Article 97 as entitled to salaries and allowances?

• (A) The Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States, and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People
• (B) The President and Vice‑President of India
• (C) The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
• (D) The Chief Justice of India and other Judges

24.Who is required by Article 99 to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation?

• (A) Every member of either House of Parliament
• (B) Only the President of India
• (C) Members of State Legislatures
• (D) Judges of the Supreme Court

25.Can a person be a member of both Houses of Parliament simultaneously under Article 101(1)?

• (A) Yes, if he obtains permission from the President
• (B) No, a person cannot be a member of both Houses
• (C) Yes, but only for a transition period of 30 days
• (D) Yes, if both Houses pass a resolution allowing it

26.Before giving any decision on a question of disqualification under Article 103, Article 103(2) requires the President to obtain the opinion of which authority?

• (A) The Speaker/Chairman of the respective House
• (B) The Prime Minister
• (C) The Election Commission
• (D) The Attorney General

27.Which of the following immunities is expressly provided by Article 105(2)?

• (A) Members are immune from criminal liability for acts done outside Parliament.
• (B) Members are immune from liability in any court for anything said or any vote given by them in Parliament or any committee thereof.
• (C) Members are immune from all types of civil and criminal proceedings regardless of context.
• (D) Members lose all immunities once Parliament publishes a report.

28.What is the effect of prorogation of the Houses of Parliament on a Bill pending in Parliament under Article 107(3)?

• (A) A Bill pending in Parliament automatically lapses on prorogation
• (B) A Bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses
• (C) Only Money Bills lapse on prorogation
• (D) Bills lapse on prorogation unless both Houses have agreed to them

29.Within what period must the Council of States return a Money Bill with its recommendations after receipt?

• (A) 7 days
• (B) 30 days
• (C) 14 days
• (D) 21 days

30.Under Article 111, upon presentation of a passed Bill, which of the following is the President expressly required to do?

• (A) He must assent to every Bill presented to him.
• (B) He must return every Bill for reconsideration.
• (C) He may either assent to the Bill or withhold his assent.
• (D) He must refer the Bill to the Supreme Court for opinion.

31.If estimates relate to 'other expenditure' (i.e., not charged on the Consolidated Fund), how does Article 113(2) require them to be presented and to which House?

• (A) They shall be submitted in the form of demands for grants to the House of the People.
• (B) They shall be presented as estimates to the Rajya Sabha for approval.
• (C) They need not be submitted to either House of Parliament.
• (D) They must be submitted to the President for direct assent before Parliament considers them.

32.Do Articles 112, 113 and 114 apply to statements, demands and laws under Article 115?

• (A) Yes — Articles 112, 113 and 114 apply to any such statement and expenditure or demand and to any law authorising appropriation to meet them.
• (B) No — Article 115 operates independently and those Articles do not apply.
• (C) Only Articles 113 and 114 apply, but Article 112 does not.
• (D) They apply only to demands presented to the House of the People, not to statements laid before both Houses.

33.If an amendment to a Bill makes provision for the reduction or abolition of a tax, is a recommendation of the President required under Article 117(1)?

• (A) Yes, a recommendation is always required for any amendment involving tax
• (B) No, the proviso to clause (1) exempts such amendments from requiring the President's recommendation
• (C) Recommendation is required only for introduction, not for moving an amendment
• (D) Recommendation is required only if the amendment is moved in the Council of States

34.If a law made under Article 119 is inconsistent with a rule made by a House under Article 118(1) or with a rule or standing order under Article 118(2), which of the following is correct?

• (A) The rule or standing order will prevail
• (B) The Speaker of the House decides which shall prevail
• (C) The provision of the law made under Article 119 shall prevail
• (D) The law prevails only if the President issues a notification

35.Can Parliament discuss the conduct of a judge in the discharge of his duties upon a mere motion to censure (not seeking removal)?

• (A) Yes — any motion suffices.
• (B) Yes — if a two-thirds majority approves.
• (C) No — only a motion for presenting an address to the President praying for removal permits discussion.
• (D) No — such matters cannot be discussed even on a removal motion.

36.The two Houses of Parliament are summoned to reassemble on different dates after an Ordinance is promulgated. From which date is the six-week period under Article 123(2)(a) reckoned?

• (A) The earlier of the two dates
• (B) The date of promulgation of the Ordinance
• (C) The date on which the President summons the Houses
• (D) The later of the two dates

37.Does the protection against disadvantageous variation in privileges, allowances or pension in Article 125 apply to persons before their appointment as Judges (i.e., can terms be changed to the disadvantage of future appointees)?

• (A) No — the Constitution absolutely prevents any change for anyone
• (B) Only if the change is authorised by Parliament retrospectively
• (C) Only the President can permit such changes
• (D) Yes — the proviso protects only after a Judge's appointment, so changes affecting future appointees are not barred by this proviso

38.While attending the Supreme Court as an ad hoc Judge under Article 127(2), which of the following best describes the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of that Judge?

• (A) He has only limited advisory powers but no full jurisdiction
• (B) He may sit but cannot exercise judicial powers of a Supreme Court Judge
• (C) He has powers only in matters referred to him by the Chief Justice
• (D) He shall have all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges, and shall discharge the duties, of a Judge of the Supreme Court while so attending

39.Does Article 129 state that the Supreme Court will 'have all the powers of such a court' (a court of record)?

• (A) No — it becomes a court of record but is not given those powers
• (B) Yes — it shall have all the powers of such a court
• (C) It gives powers but expressly excludes contempt jurisdiction
• (D) It grants only ceremonial powers of a court of record

40.Which of the following best describes clause (b) of Article 131?

• (A) A dispute between two private companies over a contract.
• (B) A dispute between a State and a private corporation involving public property.
• (C) A dispute between two or more States and local bodies within those States.
• (D) A dispute between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other.

41.If the final order in a civil proceeding is given by one Judge of a High Court, and the High Court certifies under article 134A that a substantial question of law of general importance arises, can an appeal lie to the Supreme Court under Article 133?

• (A) Yes — certification under Article 134A is sufficient to appeal to the Supreme Court.
• (B) No — clause (3) provides that no appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from the judgment, decree or final order of one Judge of a High Court unless Parliament by law otherwise provides.
• (C) Yes — but only if the Supreme Court exercises its discretion under Article 136.
• (D) No — and Parliament has no power to permit such appeals by law.

42.Does Article 134A create the same mandatory duty to determine the certificate-question when a written (non-oral) application is made immediately after the passing of the judgment?

• (A) Yes — a written application triggers the same mandatory duty as an oral one
• (B) No — the mandatory obligation in clause (b) applies only if an oral application is made immediately after the passing
• (C) Yes — but only if the High Court deems it fit
• (D) No — the provision applies only to sentences, not to written applications

43.The opening words of Article 136 read "Notwithstanding anything in this Chapter." What is the correct legal effect of that phrase as used in Article 136?

• (A) It means Article 136 overrides any provision of the Constitution, inside or outside this Chapter.
• (B) It means Article 136 overrides other provisions including clause (2) of the same Article.
• (C) It means Article 136 applies only during national emergency periods.
• (D) It means the power in clause (1) is to operate notwithstanding anything else in this Chapter, i.e. it overrides other provisions in the same Chapter but is not stated to override matters outside the Chapter.

44.Can a single State government unilaterally confer further jurisdiction and powers on the Supreme Court under Article 138?

• (A) Yes; a State government may by itself confer further jurisdiction on the Supreme Court
• (B) No; Article 138(2) requires a special agreement between the Government of India and the Government of a State and also requires Parliament by law to provide for the exercise
• (C) Yes; but only for matters in the Concurrent List
• (D) Yes; if the State Legislature passes a law to that effect

45.Which clause of Article 139A deals with withdrawal of cases to the Supreme Court, and which deals with transfer between High Courts?

• (A) Clause (2) provides for withdrawal to the Supreme Court; Clause (1) provides for transfer between High Courts.
• (B) Clause (1) provides for withdrawal to the Supreme Court; Clause (2) provides for transfer between High Courts.
• (C) Both clauses only provide for transfer between High Courts; neither allows withdrawal to the Supreme Court.
• (D) Neither clause deals with withdrawal or transfer; both relate solely to the powers of High Courts.

46.Does the phrase "all courts within the territory of India" in Article 141 include the Supreme Court itself?

• (A) No — the phrase excludes the Supreme Court.
• (B) Yes — it includes the Supreme Court, since the Supreme Court is a court within India.
• (C) It applies only to courts below the Supreme Court.
• (D) It applies only to High Courts and subordinate courts, not the Supreme Court.

47.Which of the following correctly captures a textual distinction between clauses (1) and (2) of Article 143?

• (A) Under clause (1) the reference is made by Parliament, while under clause (2) it is made by the President
• (B) Under clause (1) the Court reports to Parliament, while under clause (2) it reports to the President
• (C) Under clause (1) the Court 'may' report its opinion, while under clause (2) the Court 'shall' report its opinion
• (D) Under clause (1) no hearing is permitted, while under clause (2) a full hearing is mandatory

48.Under Article 145(2)–(3), which statement correctly captures the Court's power regarding composition of benches and the procedure when a substantial constitutional question arises?

• (A) Rules may not fix the minimum number of Judges; all matters of bench composition are left to the President.
• (B) When a substantial constitutional question arises, the hearing must be transferred in full to a five-Judge bench which must rehear the entire appeal from the beginning.
• (C) Rules may fix the minimum number of Judges for any purpose and, if a less-than-five-Judge Bench finds a substantial constitutional question necessary for disposal, it must refer that question for opinion to a Court constituted by clause (3) and thereafter dispose of the appeal in conformity with the opinion.
• (D) A single Judge may decide any substantial constitutional question if authorised by the Chief Justice.

49.If a matter raises a substantial question solely about the interpretation of the Government of India Act, 1935, but not about the Constitution, does Article 147 by itself bring that matter within the scope described?

• (A) Yes; Article 147 makes any question on the 1935 Act equivalent to a constitutional interpretation question.
• (B) Yes, but only where Orders in Council are also involved.
• (C) No; Article 147 operates by construing references to constitutional interpretation as including questions about the 1935 Act, and does not state the reverse.
• (D) Yes, but only if the 1935 Act was amended after independence.

50.The proviso in Article 149 refers to duties '...as were conferred on or exercisable by the Auditor‑General of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution in relation to the accounts of the Dominion of India and of the Provinces respectively.' Which present entities do 'Dominion of India' and 'the Provinces' correspond to in that clause?

• (A) Union and States
• (B) Union and any other authority or body
• (C) States and any other authority or body
• (D) Only 'any other authority or body'