प्रैक्टिस पेपर — BNS Chapter XIV — Of False Evidence And Offences Against Public Justice

1.Under Section 227, who is said to give false evidence?

• (A) Any person who makes a false statement in any circumstance.
• (B) A person legally bound by an oath or by an express provision of law to state the truth, or bound by law to make a declaration, who makes a statement which is false and which he knows or believes to be false or does not believe to be true.
• (C) Only a person who, under oath in a court, deliberately lies about a material fact.
• (D) Only a public officer who makes a false official statement.

2.A person, bound by oath, states 'I know that Z was at place P on day D' while having no knowledge on the subject. If Z actually was at place P on day D, is the speaker guilty of giving false evidence under Section 227?

• (A) No — if the statement happens to be factually true, there is no false evidence.
• (B) Yes — stating that one 'knows' a fact without any knowledge is false evidence whether the fact is actually true or not.
• (C) Only if the person intended to deceive the court.
• (D) Only if the statement is later shown to be false.

3.A puts jewels into a box belonging to Z intending they may be found in that box and cause Z to be convicted of theft. Under Section 228, is A guilty of fabricating false evidence?

• (A) Yes — this factual example is expressly illustrated as fabricating false evidence.
• (B) No — placing goods in someone else's box is merely tampering with property, not fabricating evidence.
• (C) Yes — but only if the jewels are actually found and produced in court.
• (D) No — such an act becomes an offence only if committed by a public servant.

4.What is the punishment where a person intentionally gives or fabricates false evidence in a case other than that referred to in sub‑section (1) of Section 229?

• (A) Imprisonment up to seven years and fine up to ten thousand rupees
• (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years and fine which may extend to five thousand rupees
• (C) Only a fine which may extend to five thousand rupees
• (D) Imprisonment for life

5.What conduct does Section 230(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 criminalise?

• (A) Giving or fabricating false evidence intending, or knowing it likely, to cause a person to be convicted of an offence that is capital.
• (B) Giving false evidence in civil proceedings to obtain monetary relief.
• (C) Making a false statement to a public servant without intent to procure conviction.
• (D) Any act that generally perverts the course of justice, whether or not it seeks conviction for a capital offence.

6.Does Section 230 apply where false evidence is given intending to cause conviction of an offence that is not capital under the law at the time?

• (A) No. Section 230 applies only where the offence intended to be procured is capital 'by the law for the time being in force in India'.
• (B) Yes. It applies to any offence if the falsity is likely to lead to conviction.
• (C) Yes. It applies whenever the giver intended the person to receive the maximum possible sentence, even if not capital.
• (D) Only if the person is actually executed as a result of the conviction.

7.Does the punishment under Section 231 potentially include a fine in addition to imprisonment?

• (A) No, the section limits punishment to imprisonment only
• (B) No, a fine cannot be imposed under Section 231
• (C) Yes, the offender is punished as a person convicted of that offence would be, which can include a fine
• (D) Only if a separate provision specifically authorises a fine

8.Which of the following scenarios is clearly covered by Section 232(1)?

• (A) A threatens to burn B's house unless B gives false testimony at a trial.
• (B) A threatens to expose B's past truthful conviction to compel B to give true evidence.
• (C) A persuades B without threats to give false evidence by offering money.
• (D) A threatens a complete stranger C (in whom B has no interest) to induce C to give false evidence about B.

9.Under Section 233, is an attempt to use evidence known to be false punishable?

• (A) No — only actual use is punishable
• (B) Only if the attempt led to a conviction in the original proceedings
• (C) Yes — the provision expressly includes "attempts to use"
• (D) Only if the attempt is accompanied by perjury

10.A certificate contains a false statement that is immaterial to the relevant matter. Under Section 234, is the issuer punishable?

• (A) Yes — any falsehood in a certificate attracts punishment under Section 234
• (B) No — Section 234 requires the certificate to be false in a material point
• (C) Only if the issuer intended to deceive the court or authorities
• (D) Only if the immaterial falsehood caused some loss

11.If a certificate is false only in an immaterial point, is Section 235 attracted?

• (A) No — the falsehood must be in a material point
• (B) Yes — any falsehood suffices
• (C) Only if the user knew it was false
• (D) Only if used in judicial proceedings

12.Which mental state with respect to the truth of the statement is required for liability under Section 236?

• (A) A negligent or careless inaccuracy about the fact.
• (B) He either knows or believes the statement to be false or does not believe it to be true.
• (C) Honest mistake of fact without awareness of falsity.
• (D) Recklessness as to whether the statement is true or false without any belief.

13.Does Section 237 cover attempts to use a false declaration as true, or only successful use?

• (A) It covers only successful use; attempts are not mentioned.
• (B) It covers both corrupt use and attempts to use such a declaration as true.
• (C) It covers only attempts, not successful use.
• (D) The section is silent on attempts and only discusses admissibility.

14.Which of the following acts, when done knowing or having reason to believe that an offence has been committed and with the required intention, is expressly made an offence by Section 238 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

• (A) Causing any evidence of the commission of that offence to disappear
• (B) Committing the original offence itself
• (C) Being merely negligent about preserving evidence
• (D) Giving legal advice to the accused about defence strategy

15.Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence in IPC Section 201 (Causing disappearance of evidence of off) of the IPC now corresponds to which section?

• (A) BNS Section 314 (Dishonest misappropriation of property)
• (B) BNS Section 110 (Attempt to commit culpable homicide)
• (C) BNS Section 336 (Forgery)
• (D) BNS Section 238 (Causing disappearance of evidence of off)

16.Would an omission resulting from genuine forgetfulness fall within Section 239?

• (A) Yes — omission is sufficient regardless of intent
• (B) No — the provision requires that the omission be intentional
• (C) Yes — if the person had reason to suspect an offence
• (D) No — unless the omission was notified later to authorities

17.Regarding the falsity of the information, which formulation correctly describes what Section 240 criminalises?

• (A) It criminalises only information that the person actually knows to be false
• (B) It criminalises providing information even if the person honestly believes it to be true
• (C) It criminalises giving any information respecting an offence which the person "knows or believes to be false"
• (D) It criminalises giving information only if a court later proves it false beyond doubt

18.Does Section 241 require a mental element for conviction, and if so what is it?

• (A) No, it is a strict liability offence with no mental element required.
• (B) Yes, it requires intention to prevent the document or electronic record from being produced or used as evidence.
• (C) Yes, it requires only negligence regarding loss or destruction of the document.
• (D) Yes, it requires knowledge that the document is inadmissible.

19.What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed under Section 242?

• (A) One year
• (B) Three years
• (C) Seven years
• (D) Life imprisonment

20.Which of the following acts, when done fraudulently with the specified intent, are covered by Section 243 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

• (A) Only removing property
• (B) Only concealing property
• (C) Only transferring or delivering property to another person
• (D) Removing, concealing, transferring or delivering property to any person

21.Under Section 244 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, what is the maximum term of imprisonment that may be awarded for the offence described?

• (A) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years
• (B) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years
• (C) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months
• (D) Imprisonment for life

22.Is actual prevention of seizure (i.e., the property ultimately not being taken) required to constitute the offence under Section 244?

• (A) Yes — the offence is complete only if the property was ultimately prevented from being seized
• (B) No — the Section punishes the fraudulent acceptance, claim or deception done with the intention to prevent seizure regardless of the actual outcome
• (C) Yes — only if the court later pronounces a sentence of forfeiture
• (D) No — but only if the accused subsequently derives a financial benefit from the property

23.Which of the following acts is expressly covered as an offence by Section 245?

• (A) Fraudulently obtaining a decree in one’s own favour for the exact sum due.
• (B) Causing a decree to be passed against a person for the correct amount but without lawful procedure.
• (C) Suffering a decree to be passed against oneself for a smaller amount than the creditor’s claim.
• (D) Fraudulently causing or suffering a decree or order to be executed against oneself after it has been satisfied, or for anything in respect of which it has been satisfied.

24.A person knowingly makes a false claim in Court to obtain a financial advantage in a civil dispute. Is this conduct covered by Section 246?

• (A) No — the provision only covers claims made with intent to injure or annoy.
• (B) No — the provision applies only if the purpose was to annoy a person.
• (C) Yes — but only if the claim was made in a criminal proceeding.
• (D) Yes — because making a claim "fraudulently or dishonestly" is expressly included.

25.A person fraudulently obtains a decree for a larger sum than is due. Under Section 247, is this conduct punishable?

• (A) No — the provision only covers sums that are entirely not due.
• (B) Only if the decree is executed afterwards.
• (C) Yes — obtaining a decree for a larger sum than is due is criminalised.
• (D) Only if the decree relates to property interests.

26.If a person institutes a criminal proceeding on a false charge of an offence punishable with life imprisonment, which punishment does Section 248 prescribe?

• (A) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine
• (B) Imprisonment up to five years or fine up to two lakh only
• (C) Only a fine
• (D) Imprisonment for life

27.What is the maximum punishment under Section 249 for harbouring a person who has committed an offence punishable with death?

• (A) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, and also liable to fine
• (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, and also liable to fine
• (C) Imprisonment for life
• (D) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to one-fourth of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence

28.Which of the following best describes the conduct criminalised by Section 250 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

• (A) Accepting gratification to commit a new offence.
• (B) Accepting or attempting to obtain, or agreeing to accept, any gratification or restitution in consideration of concealing an offence, screening a person from legal punishment, or not proceeding against a person to bring them to legal punishment.
• (C) Accepting gratification to influence the severity of punishment after conviction.
• (D) Accepting a gift unrelated to any offence or prosecution.

29.Under Section 251, which of the following acts is an offence?

• (A) Giving or offering any gratification or restoring property to a person in consideration of that person concealing an offence or screening another from legal punishment
• (B) Giving a lawful gift to any person for personal reasons unrelated to an offence
• (C) Restoring property to a person who has a legal claim, regardless of any connection with an offence
• (D) Giving a small token of appreciation to a witness for testifying truthfully

30.Does Section 251 apply to a case where the underlying offence may lawfully be compounded?

• (A) Yes — it applies regardless of compounding
• (B) No — the provisions of Section 251 do not extend to cases where the offence may lawfully be compounded
• (C) Yes, but only if the compounding requires court approval
• (D) No, except where the offence is punishable with death

31.A person accepts gratification to help recover stolen movable property and then uses all means in his power which result in the offender being apprehended but the offender is later acquitted. Under Section 252, is the person still liable for punishment?

• (A) No, apprehension alone is sufficient to avoid punishment.
• (B) No, once the offender is apprehended the giver cannot be punished regardless of conviction.
• (C) Only if the person failed to hand the offender to authorities.
• (D) Yes, the provision requires causing the offender to be 'apprehended and convicted' to avoid punishment, so failure to secure conviction can attract liability.

32.How does Section 253 treat an act or omission committed outside India that makes a person liable to be apprehended in India?

• (A) Such acts committed outside India are not covered by Section 253
• (B) They are covered only if an extradition request has been made
• (C) They are treated as foreign offences and attract only extradition proceedings, not Section 253
• (D) They are deemed to be punishable as if the accused had been guilty of it in India for the purposes of this section

33.Which mental state does Section 254 require for criminal liability for harbouring robbers or dacoits?

• (A) Mere suspicion that a person may be a robber or dacoit
• (B) Strict liability requiring no mental element
• (C) Knowing, or having reason to believe, that persons are about to commit or have recently committed robbery or dacoity
• (D) Only intention to commit robbery or dacoity

34.Which mental element with respect to the act of disobedience is expressly required by Section 255 for a public servant?

• (A) That he knowingly disobeys any direction of the law as to the way in which he is to conduct himself
• (B) That he negligently disobeys a direction of the law
• (C) That he recklessly disobeys a direction of the law
• (D) That he innocently disobeys a direction of the law

35.What is the maximum punishment prescribed by Section 256 for a public servant who frames a record he knows to be incorrect as described?

• (A) Imprisonment up to one year only
• (B) Life imprisonment
• (C) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both
• (D) Only a fine

36.According to the provision, who is liable for punishment for making or pronouncing a report, order, verdict, or decision contrary to law?

• (A) Any person
• (B) A public servant
• (C) Only a judicial officer
• (D) Only a lawyer involved in the proceeding

37.Which of the following best describes the mental elements required for liability under this provision?

• (A) Only that the act was done corruptly or maliciously
• (B) Only that the person knew the report/order/decision was contrary to law
• (C) Either corrupt/malicious conduct or knowledge that it was contrary to law is enough
• (D) Both corruptly or maliciously acting and knowing it to be contrary to law are required

38.Which of the following is NOT a requirement for an offence under Section 258?

• (A) The person must be in an office that gives legal authority to commit or confine persons
• (B) The act must be done corruptly or maliciously
• (C) There must be an actual conviction of the person committed
• (D) The officer must know he is acting contrary to law when exercising the authority

39.Does Section 259 apply when the person was not yet in confinement but “ought to have been apprehended”?

• (A) No — it applies only to persons already in confinement
• (B) Only if a warrant had been issued
• (C) Only if the person had been formally charged in court
• (D) Yes — the provision covers persons who ought to have been apprehended

40.Does Section 260 apply where a public servant intentionally aids in an attempt by a confined person to escape but the escape is not completed?

• (A) No — the offence requires the escape to be completed
• (B) Only if the attempt resulted in harm
• (C) Yes — the section expressly includes aiding in escaping or attempting to escape
• (D) Only if the public servant also omitted to apprehend the person earlier

41.If a public servant deliberately opens a prison gate and lets a prisoner go free, does Section 261 apply to that act?

• (A) Yes, deliberate release is punishable under Section 261
• (B) Yes, but only if the prisoner was convicted
• (C) No, Section 261 applies to negligent suffering of escape, not deliberate releases
• (D) No, Section 261 applies only to escapes during official transport

42.What is the maximum term of imprisonment provided under Section 262 for resisting lawful apprehension or escaping lawful custody?

• (A) Imprisonment which may extend to one year.
• (B) Imprisonment which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
• (C) Imprisonment which may extend to five years.
• (D) No imprisonment, only a fine is prescribed.

43.If the person to be apprehended or rescued is under sentence of death, what punishment does Section 263 prescribe for the rescuer or person offering resistance?

• (A) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and fine
• (B) Imprisonment for life or imprisonment of either description for a term not exceeding ten years, and fine
• (C) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, and fine
• (D) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or fine

44.Under Section 264 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, who is liable for punishment for omitting to apprehend or suffering escape?

• (A) A public servant who is legally bound as such public servant to apprehend or to keep in confinement that person.
• (B) Any public servant, regardless of whether they are legally bound to apprehend or keep the person in confinement.
• (C) Any person who assists in the escape of a confined person.
• (D) Only the officer in charge of a prison or detention facility.

45.Which statement correctly captures the requisites for punishment under Section 264?

• (A) Any public servant is punishable under Section 264 whenever any person escapes confinement, irrespective of duty.
• (B) Section 264 applies only when the escape is from lawful custody in a police station.
• (C) A public servant is punishable under Section 264 only if he is legally bound as such public servant to apprehend or keep the person in confinement, and the omission may be intentional (punishable up to three years or fine) or negligent (punishable by simple imprisonment up to two years or fine).
• (D) Section 264 applies even where another law already provides for the omission to apprehend or suffering of escape.

46.Does Section 265 apply when the apprehension being resisted is not lawful?

• (A) Yes — the section applies irrespective of whether the apprehension is lawful
• (B) No — the section applies only to resistance to a lawful apprehension
• (C) Yes — but only if no other law deals with the matter
• (D) Only when the unlawful apprehension is later validated by a court

47.Does Section 266 apply when a remission was not accepted by the person?

• (A) Yes — it applies whether or not the remission was accepted.
• (B) Yes — but only if the court expressly directs its application.
• (C) No — it applies only when the remission was offered by executive authority.
• (D) No — it applies only to someone "having accepted any conditional remission of punishment."

48.Section 267 applies to insult or interruption of a public servant when:

• (A) It applies whenever the public servant is insulted or interrupted, regardless of context
• (B) It applies only if the public servant holds the office of a judge
• (C) The public servant is sitting in any stage of a judicial proceeding
• (D) It applies only if the insult or interruption occurs outside the courtroom

49.Which mental states are explicitly required by Section 268 for criminal liability?

• (A) Intentional or knowing conduct
• (B) Strict liability (no mental state required)
• (C) Recklessness
• (D) Negligence

50.Under Section 269 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following describes the offence created by the provision?

• (A) Failing without sufficient cause to appear in Court in accordance with the terms of the bail or bond after being charged and released on bail/bond.
• (B) Failing to appear in Court after conviction for an offence.
• (C) Failing to pay a fine imposed on conviction for the offence with which one was charged.
• (D) Committing a new offence while on bail which leads to cancellation of the bail bond.