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प्रैक्टिस पेपरBNS Chapter VI — Of Offences Affecting The Human Body

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  1. 1.Under Section 100 BNS, culpable homicide is committed when a person causes death by doing an act with—

    • (A) The intention of causing death, or the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or the knowledge that the act is likely to cause death
    • (B) Negligence alone
    • (C) Only a premeditated design to kill
    • (D) Any unlawful intention whatsoever
  2. 2.Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence in IPC Section 299 (Culpable homicide) of the IPC now corresponds to which section?

    • (A) BNS Section 62 (Punishment for attempting to commit offe)
    • (B) BNS Section 83 (Marriage ceremony fraudulently gone thro)
    • (C) BNS Section 85 (Husband or relative of husband of a woma)
    • (D) BNS Section 100 (Culpable homicide)
  3. 3.A strikes Z, knowing Z suffers from a disease such that the blow is likely to cause his death, intending only bodily injury; Z dies. Had A not known of the disease, the same blow would not ordinarily kill a healthy person. Which analysis under Section 101 BNS is correct?

    • (A) A is guilty of murder in both situations, since death in fact resulted
    • (B) With knowledge of the disease A is guilty of murder under clause (b); without that knowledge he is not guilty of murder, as he intended neither death nor an injury sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death
    • (C) A is not guilty of murder in either situation because the blow was not ordinarily fatal
    • (D) A's liability depends solely on whether the injury was sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death
  4. 4.Can an offender be convicted of a lesser description of culpable homicide merely because the person who actually died was not the one he intended or foresaw?

    • (A) Yes, always lesser if the actual victim was unintended
    • (B) Yes, but only if the prosecution cannot prove intent
    • (C) Only if the death was purely accidental and unforeseeable
    • (D) No; the culpable homicide is of the description it would have been if the intended person's death had occurred
  5. 5.When a group of five or more persons commits murder on the ground of caste under Section 103(2) BNS, who is liable to be punished?

    • (A) Only the person who inflicted the fatal injury
    • (B) Only the leader of the group
    • (C) Each member of such group
    • (D) Only members with a prior criminal record
  6. 6.Does Section 104 apply to a person who is under sentence of death and then commits murder?

    • (A) No — it applies only to persons under sentence of imprisonment for life
    • (B) Yes — it applies to anyone serving any sentence
    • (C) Yes — it applies to all prisoners who commit murder
    • (D) Only if the death sentence has been commuted to imprisonment
  7. 7.Under Section 105 BNS, when the act causing death is done with knowledge that it is likely to cause death but without any intention to cause death or such bodily injury, the maximum imprisonment is:

    • (A) Five years
    • (B) Seven years
    • (C) Imprisonment for life
    • (D) Ten years
  8. 8.Under Section 106(1) BNS, causing death by a rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide is generally punishable with imprisonment up to:

    • (A) Two years
    • (B) Five years
    • (C) Seven years
    • (D) Ten years
  9. 9.Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence in IPC Section 304A (Causing death by negligence) of the IPC now corresponds to which section?

    • (A) BNS Section 270 (Public nuisance)
    • (B) BNS Section 81 (Cohabitation caused by man deceitfully i)
    • (C) BNS Section 173 (Punishment for bribery)
    • (D) BNS Section 106 (Causing death by negligence)
  10. 10.If an abettor is sentenced to death under Section 107, can the court also make the abettor liable to pay a fine under the same section?

    • (A) No — a fine applies only when imprisonment is imposed
    • (B) Yes — the section states the abettor "shall also be liable to fine" in addition to the specified punishments
    • (C) Only if the court substitutes imprisonment instead of death
    • (D) Only if a separate provision expressly imposes a fine
  11. 11.Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence in IPC Section 306 (Abetment of suicide) of the IPC now corresponds to which section?

    • (A) BNS Section 316 (Criminal breach of trust)
    • (B) BNS Section 108 (Abetment of suicide)
    • (C) BNS Section 310 (Dacoity)
    • (D) BNS Section 64 (Punishment for rape)
  12. 12.Under Section 109(2), if a person committing the offence under subsection (1) is already under sentence of imprisonment for life and hurt is caused, which punishments may be imposed?

    • (A) Only imprisonment for life (as under subsection (1)).
    • (B) May be punished with death or with imprisonment for life which shall mean the remainder of that person’s natural life.
    • (C) Only imprisonment for up to ten years and fine.
    • (D) No further punishment because the person is already serving life imprisonment.
  13. 13.If an accused does an act meeting the section's test and injures a person (but does not cause death), what maximum punishment does Section 110 prescribe?

    • (A) Imprisonment which may extend to three years only
    • (B) Imprisonment for life
    • (C) A fixed term of seven years without fine
    • (D) Imprisonment which may extend to seven years, or fine, or both
  14. 14.For an activity to qualify as a 'continuing unlawful activity' under Section 111 BNS, which of the following conditions is required?

    • (A) The offence must be punishable with imprisonment of seven years or more
    • (B) More than one charge-sheet must have been filed before a competent court within the preceding ten years and the court must have taken cognizance
    • (C) The accused must have been previously convicted at least twice
    • (D) The activity must have been committed across more than one State
  15. 15.A member of a gang pickpockets (pick pocketing) from a crowded place acting alone without other members present. Is this conduct covered as petty organised crime under Section 112?

    • (A) Yes — because Section 112(1) covers a member of a group or gang committing theft (including pick pocketing) either singly or jointly.
    • (B) No — because the act was committed alone and not jointly with other members.
    • (C) No — because pick pocketing is not mentioned in the provision.
    • (D) Yes — but only if other gang members planned the act even if they did not participate.
  16. 16.Who is authorised by Section 113 (Explanation) to decide whether a case should be registered under Section 113 or under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967?

    • (A) District Magistrate
    • (B) An officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police
    • (C) State Home Secretary
    • (D) A Magistrate of the first class
  17. 17.Does Section 114 apply when bodily pain, disease or infirmity is caused to an animal?

    • (A) Yes, animals are covered by 'any person'
    • (B) Yes, but only for domestic animals
    • (C) Only if the animal belongs to a human being
    • (D) No, the text refers to 'any person', not animals
  18. 18.Section 115(2) BNS expressly excludes from its punishment clause the case provided for by:

    • (A) Sub-section (1) of section 122
    • (B) Sub-section (2) of section 122
    • (C) Sub-section (1) of section 117
    • (D) Sub-section (2) of section 121
  19. 19.Under Section 116, grievous hurt includes hurt which causes the sufferer to be unable to follow his ordinary pursuits for how long?

    • (A) 7 days
    • (B) 15 days
    • (C) 30 days
    • (D) 3 days
  20. 20.Under Section 117(2) BNS, the general punishment for voluntarily causing grievous hurt is:

    • (A) Imprisonment up to five years or fine
    • (B) Imprisonment up to ten years and fine
    • (C) Imprisonment up to seven years, and also liability to fine
    • (D) Imprisonment up to three years and fine
  21. 21.Under Section 118(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum term of imprisonment for voluntarily causing hurt by means such as a shooting, stabbing or cutting instrument?

    • (A) Imprisonment which may extend to three years
    • (B) Imprisonment which may extend to ten years
    • (C) Imprisonment for life
    • (D) Only fine up to twenty thousand rupees
  22. 22.Under Section 119(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum punishment for voluntarily causing hurt for the purpose of extorting property or valuable security?

    • (A) Imprisonment for life and fine
    • (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and fine
    • (C) Imprisonment up to seven years and fine
    • (D) Fine only
  23. 23.Under Section 120 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum punishment for voluntarily causing hurt for the purposes specified in sub‑section (1)?

    • (A) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and liable to fine
    • (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and liable to fine
    • (C) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years
    • (D) Death sentence
  24. 24.Under Section 121(1) BNS, voluntarily causing hurt to a public servant in the discharge of his duty is punishable with:

    • (A) Imprisonment up to three years and mandatory fine
    • (B) Imprisonment up to five years, or fine, or both
    • (C) Imprisonment of not less than one year extendable to ten years
    • (D) Imprisonment up to seven years and fine
  25. 25.Which of the following situations falls within Section 122(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

    • (A) A person voluntarily causes hurt on grave and sudden provocation.
    • (B) A person voluntarily causes grievous hurt after deliberation and premeditation.
    • (C) A person causes hurt without any provocation.
    • (D) Hurt caused on trivial or insignificant provocation.
  26. 26.Which of the following acts is directly covered by the wording of Section 123?

    • (A) Administering an intoxicating drug to a person with intent to facilitate the commission of an offence
    • (B) Sending threatening messages without giving any substance
    • (C) Simple assault that does not involve a poison, drug or other thing
    • (D) Failing to provide medical aid to an injured person
  27. 27.What is the minimum punishment prescribed under subsection (1) for causing grievous hurt by throwing or administering acid?

    • (A) Imprisonment for life as the minimum term.
    • (B) Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than seven years.
    • (C) Imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than ten years.
    • (D) Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than five years.
  28. 28.Under Section 125 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following describes the core act that constitutes the offence?

    • (A) An act done intentionally to cause bodily injury to another person.
    • (B) Any act done so rashly or negligently as to endanger human life or the personal safety of others.
    • (C) Only acts that result in death of another person.
    • (D) Any lawful act that causes fear without endangering safety.
  29. 29.Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence in IPC Section 336 (Act endangering life or personal safety) of the IPC now corresponds to which section?

    • (A) BNS Section 227 (Giving false evidence)
    • (B) BNS Section 319 (Cheating by personation)
    • (C) BNS Section 125 (Act endangering life or personal safety)
    • (D) BNS Section 336 (Forgery)
  30. 30.Which statement correctly distinguishes wrongful restraint (Section 126 BNS) from wrongful confinement (Section 127 BNS)?

    • (A) Restraint prevents a person from proceeding in a particular direction in which he has a right to proceed, while confinement prevents him from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits
    • (B) Restraint requires the use of physical force, while confinement can be caused by mere threats
    • (C) Restraint must continue for at least three days, while confinement can be momentary
    • (D) Restraint is punished more severely than confinement because it affects freedom of movement
  31. 31.A keeps Z in wrongful confinement knowing that a writ for Z's liberation has been duly issued. Under Section 127(5) BNS, the imprisonment of up to two years prescribed for this act is:

    • (A) A substitute for any other punishment for the wrongful confinement
    • (B) In addition to any term of imprisonment to which A may be liable under any other section of the Chapter, and A is also liable to fine
    • (C) Awardable only if the confinement lasted three days or more
    • (D) Restricted to simple imprisonment with no fine
  32. 32.If a person whistles to make a dog run and bite another person, does Section 128 regard that as using force?

    • (A) No — inducing an animal is not covered by the provision
    • (B) Yes — but only if the person physically handles the animal first
    • (C) Yes — only if the animal is a dangerous species
    • (D) Yes — inducing an animal to move, change motion, or cease to move is expressly covered
  33. 33.If A incites a dog to spring upon Z but does not physically touch Z, does A's act fall within 'criminal force' under Section 129?

    • (A) No—criminal force requires direct physical contact by A with Z.
    • (B) Yes—but only if the dog actually causes injury to Z.
    • (C) Yes—but only if A used his bodily power personally to bring force on Z.
    • (D) Yes—if A intends to cause injury, fear or annoyance to Z by inciting the dog.
  34. 34.A takes up a stick and says to Z, 'I will give you a beating.' Applying Section 130 and its illustrations, does this conduct amount to an assault?

    • (A) No, because the words alone are sufficient and words always equal assault
    • (B) No, because a raised stick without striking cannot be an assault
    • (C) Yes, only if Z actually gets injured
    • (D) Yes, because the gesture explained by the words may amount to an assault
  35. 35.If the provocation was sought or voluntarily provoked by the offender as an excuse for the offence, what is the effect on mitigation under Section 131?

    • (A) It will mitigate the offence
    • (B) It may mitigate depending on the circumstances
    • (C) It will not mitigate the punishment
    • (D) It will mitigate only if the provocation was sudden
  36. 36.A person assaults a public servant who is not then performing an official act, but does so with the specific intent to prevent that public servant from discharging his official duties in future. Does Section 132 apply?

    • (A) No, because the public servant was not executing his duty at that moment
    • (B) No, because intent to prevent future discharge is not covered
    • (C) Yes, because the provision covers assault done with intent to prevent or deter the person from discharging his duty
    • (D) Yes, but only if the assault prevents the duty immediately
  37. 37.What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed by Section 133 for assault or criminal force with intent to dishonour?

    • (A) Imprisonment which may extend to one year, or fine, or both
    • (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both
    • (C) Imprisonment which may extend to five years, or fine, or both
    • (D) Only fine, with no imprisonment specified
  38. 38.Which of the following is a necessary element of the offence under Section 134?

    • (A) An attempt to steal property carried by a person, even without assault or force on the person
    • (B) Assault or use of criminal force to a person while attempting to steal property that that person is then wearing or carrying
    • (C) Only a completed theft of property that a person is carrying
    • (D) Assault to a person unrelated to any theft
  39. 39.What is the maximum term of imprisonment that may be imposed under Section 135?

    • (A) Six months
    • (B) One year
    • (C) Two years
    • (D) Three years
  40. 40.What is the maximum fine that Section 136 allows for the offence of assault or criminal force on grave and sudden provocation?

    • (A) Five hundred rupees
    • (B) Two thousand rupees
    • (C) One thousand rupees
    • (D) No fine; only imprisonment
  41. 41.In a charge of kidnapping from lawful guardianship under Section 137(1)(b) BNS, whose consent is material to determine whether the offence is made out?

    • (A) The consent of the child who was taken
    • (B) The consent of the person of unsound mind
    • (C) The consent of the police officer of the area
    • (D) The consent of the lawful guardian of the child or person of unsound mind
  42. 42.Which two means of making a person go from a place constitute abduction under Section 138 BNS?

    • (A) Persuasion and payment
    • (B) Threat and promise of marriage
    • (C) Enticement and hire
    • (D) Force and deceitful means
  43. 43.Under Section 139(4) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following acts is expressly included within the definition of "begging"?

    • (A) Soliciting or receiving alms in a public place under the pretence of selling articles
    • (B) Collecting funds for a registered charity with permission
    • (C) Working for wages in a private shop
    • (D) Receiving a lawful monthly stipend from the state
  44. 44.Under Section 140(1) BNS, whoever kidnaps or abducts any person in order that such person may be murdered or put in danger of being murdered shall be punished with:

    • (A) Death only
    • (B) Imprisonment of either description up to seven years and fine
    • (C) Imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment up to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine
    • (D) Imprisonment up to three years, or fine, or both
  45. 45.Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence in IPC Section 364 (Kidnapping or abducting in order to murd) of the IPC now corresponds to which section?

    • (A) BNS Section 140 (Kidnapping or abducting in order to murd)
    • (B) BNS Section 336 (Forgery)
    • (C) BNS Section 127 (Wrongful confinement)
    • (D) BNS Section 329 (Criminal trespass and house-trespass)
  46. 46.Which act does Section 142 punish?

    • (A) Wrongfully concealing or confining a person known to have been kidnapped or abducted.
    • (B) Kidnapping or abducting a person directly.
    • (C) Lawfully detaining a person under police authority.
    • (D) Reporting a kidnapping to the police.
  47. 47.Which of the following is expressly listed in Section 143(1) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita as a means by which a person may be recruited, transported, harboured, transferred or received for the purpose of exploitation?

    • (A) Using threats
    • (B) Obtaining voluntary consent of the adult person
    • (C) A lawful employment contract
    • (D) Parental permission
  48. 48.Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence in IPC Section 370 (Trafficking of persons) of the IPC now corresponds to which section?

    • (A) BNS Section 114 (Hurt)
    • (B) BNS Section 238 (Causing disappearance of evidence of off)
    • (C) BNS Section 143 (Trafficking of person)
    • (D) BNS Section 309 (Robbery)
  49. 49.A defendant had reason to believe that a child was trafficked but honestly believed the work they were engaging the child in was lawful non-sexual labour; in fact the child was engaged in sexual exploitation. Under Section 144(1), is the defendant liable?

    • (A) Yes — liability attaches because the provision requires knowledge or reason to believe the child was trafficked and the act was engagement for sexual exploitation.
    • (B) No — liability requires that the defendant also knew the engagement was for sexual exploitation.
    • (C) No — liability attaches only if the defendant both knew of trafficking and admitted the sexual nature of the work.
    • (D) Yes, but only if the court imposes a fine.
  50. 50.Which statement correctly describes the penalties under Section 145 regarding imprisonment and fine?

    • (A) Only a fine is imposed; imprisonment is not required
    • (B) Imprisonment is imposed and a fine is optional
    • (C) Both imprisonment (life or up to ten years) and a fine are required
    • (D) The court may impose either a fine or imprisonment, but not both

उत्तर कुंजी

1. A2. D3. B4. D5. C6. A7. D8. B9. D10. B11. B12. B13. D14. B15. A16. B17. D18. A19. B20. C21. A22. B23. A24. B25. A26. A27. C28. B29. C30. A31. B32. D33. D34. D35. C36. C37. B38. B39. B40. C41. D42. D43. A44. C45. A46. A47. A48. C49. A50. C

व्याख्याएँ

  1. 1. (A) Section 100 defines culpable homicide as causing death by an act done with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that the act is likely to cause death. Mere negligence or any unlawful intention generally is not sufficient.
  2. 2. (D) IPC Section 299 (Culpable homicide) maps to BNS Section 100 (Culpable homicide) in the BNS.
  3. 3. (B) Clause (b) of Section 101 covers an act done with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause the death of the particular person harmed. Illustration (b) explains that A, knowing of Z's disease, is guilty of murder, but if A did not know of the disease and the blow would not ordinarily kill a person in sound health, A is not guilty of murder absent intention to cause death or an objectively fatal injury.
  4. 4. (D) Section 102 makes clear that where an act intended or known to be likely to cause death of a person causes death of another whom he neither intended nor foresaw, the culpable homicide is of the description it would have been had the intended person's death occurred. It therefore does not become a lesser description merely because a different person died.
  5. 5. (C) Section 103(2) expressly states that each member of such group shall be punished with death or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine. Liability is not confined to the member who actually caused the death.
  6. 6. (A) The provision is expressly limited to "Whoever, being under sentence of imprisonment for life, commits murder..."; it therefore does not by its terms apply to persons under other sentences such as death.
  7. 7. (D) The second limb of Section 105 punishes acts done with knowledge that they are likely to cause death, but without intention, with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years and with fine. Life imprisonment is available only under the intention limb.
  8. 8. (B) Section 106(1) BNS punishes causing death by any rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, along with liability to fine. A lower ceiling applies only to registered medical practitioners performing medical procedures.
  9. 9. (D) IPC Section 304A (Causing death by negligence) maps to BNS Section 106 (Causing death by negligence) in the BNS.
  10. 10. (B) Section 107 provides the abettor "shall be punished with death or imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years, and shall also be liable to fine." The wording makes liability to fine an additional obligation alongside the specified punishments, including death.
  11. 11. (B) IPC Section 306 (Abetment of suicide) maps to BNS Section 108 (Abetment of suicide) in the BNS.
  12. 12. (B) Section 109(2) states that when a person offending under subsection (1) is under sentence of imprisonment for life and hurt is caused, he may be punished with death or with imprisonment for life meaning the remainder of his natural life, permitting harsher penalties than subsection (1) alone.
  13. 13. (D) The provision specifies that "if hurt is caused to any person by such act, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fine, or with both."
  14. 14. (B) The Explanation defines continuing unlawful activity as a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment of three years or more, in respect of which more than one charge-sheet has been filed before a competent court within the preceding period of ten years and that court has taken cognizance. Prior convictions are not required; charge-sheets with cognizance suffice.
  15. 15. (A) Section 112(1) covers acts committed by a person who is "being a member of a group or gang, either singly or jointly." The Explanation explicitly lists "pick pocketing" as included within "theft," so a gang member pickpocketing alone falls within petty organised crime.
  16. 16. (B) The Explanation to Section 113 declares that the officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police shall decide whether to register the case under this section or under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967. The text therefore vests that decision in an officer at or above the rank of Superintendent of Police.
  17. 17. (D) The provision speaks of causing bodily pain, disease or infirmity 'to any person'. As written, it refers to persons, so causing harm to animals is not covered by this definition of hurt.
  18. 18. (A) Section 115(2) opens with the words 'Whoever, except in the case provided for by sub-section (1) of section 122, voluntarily causes hurt'. Cases falling under section 122(1) are therefore carved out of the general punishment for voluntarily causing hurt.
  19. 19. (B) Clause (h) of Section 116 includes any hurt which causes the sufferer to be "during the space of fifteen days" unable to follow his ordinary pursuits. Therefore the period specified is fifteen days.
  20. 20. (C) Section 117(2) provides that whoever, except in the case provided for by sub-section (2) of section 122, voluntarily causes grievous hurt shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
  21. 21. (A) Section 118(1) provides that causing hurt by the listed dangerous means shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine which may extend to twenty thousand rupees, or with both.
  22. 22. (B) Section 119(1) prescribes that whoever voluntarily causes hurt for the purpose of extortion shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine. The provision does not provide life imprisonment for simple hurt committed for extortion.
  23. 23. (A) Section 120(1) states that whoever voluntarily causes hurt for the specified purposes "shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine."
  24. 24. (B) Section 121(1) prescribes imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, or fine, or both, for voluntarily causing hurt to a public servant in the discharge of his duty or to deter him from discharging it.
  25. 25. (A) Section 122(1) applies where a person "voluntarily causes hurt on grave and sudden provocation." The provision specifically targets hurt occasioned by grave and sudden provocation, not premeditated or unprovoked acts.
  26. 26. (A) Section 123 covers anyone who "administers to or causes to be taken by any person any poison or any stupefying, intoxicating or unwholesome drug, or other thing" with the listed intents, so administering an intoxicating drug to facilitate an offence is within the section.
  27. 27. (C) Subsection (1) prescribes punishment with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to imprisonment for life, and with fine.
  28. 28. (B) The provision begins: 'Whoever does any act so rashly or negligently as to endanger human life or the personal safety of others...' which matches option 2. The text specifies rashness or negligence and endangerment, not intent or death.
  29. 29. (C) IPC Section 336 (Act endangering life or personal safety) maps to BNS Section 125 (Act endangering life or personal safety) in the BNS.
  30. 30. (A) Under Section 126(1) BNS, wrongful restraint is preventing a person from proceeding in any direction in which he has a right to proceed, leaving other directions open. Section 127(1) BNS defines wrongful confinement as restraint in such a manner as to prevent the person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits, i.e., in all directions. Confinement carries the higher punishment (up to one year) compared with restraint (up to one month).
  31. 31. (B) Section 127(5) BNS provides that confinement in defiance of a duly issued writ of liberation is punished with imprisonment of either description up to two years 'in addition to' any term of imprisonment to which the offender may be liable under any other section of the Chapter, and he shall also be liable to fine. It is thus a cumulative, not an alternative, punishment, and it has no minimum duration requirement.
  32. 32. (D) Clause (c) of the proviso expressly covers causing motion by "inducing any animal to move, to change its motion, or to cease to move." Whistling to induce a dog therefore falls within the provision as use of force.
  33. 33. (D) Illustration (h) expressly states that inciting a dog to spring upon Z is a use of criminal force if A intends to cause injury, fear or annoyance. Physical contact by A is not necessary when the requisite intention is present.
  34. 34. (D) Illustration (c) under Section 130 expressly states that although the words alone might not be assault and a mere gesture might not be either, the gesture explained by the words may amount to an assault. Physical injury is not required; causing apprehension is the key.
  35. 35. (C) Explanation 1(a) of Section 131 states that 'Grave and sudden provocation will not mitigate the punishment for an offence under this section... if the provocation is sought or voluntarily provoked by the offender as an excuse for the offence.' Hence such provocation does not mitigate punishment. The text makes no conditional mitigation in this scenario.
  36. 36. (C) Section 132 covers assaults committed "with intent to prevent or deter that person from discharging his duty as such public servant." Therefore an assault intended to deter discharge of duty is within the provision even if the servant is not then executing duty.
  37. 37. (B) The provision states punishment as "imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both." Thus the maximum term is two years and imprisonment may be of either description (e.g. simple or rigorous), or a fine, or both.
  38. 38. (B) Section 134 requires that the offender assaults or uses criminal force to a person in attempting to commit theft on property which that person is then wearing or carrying. Thus assault/criminal force to the person in the course of attempting that theft is necessary.
  39. 39. (B) The provision states punishment with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year. Therefore the maximum imprisonment under Section 135 is one year.
  40. 40. (C) Section 136 provides punishment by fine which may extend to one thousand rupees. Hence the maximum fine specified is Rs. 1,000.
  41. 41. (D) Section 137(1)(b) BNS penalises taking or enticing any child or person of unsound mind out of the keeping of the lawful guardian 'without the consent of such guardian'. The consent of the child or person of unsound mind is immaterial under the clause; only the guardian's consent negates the offence.
  42. 42. (D) Section 138 BNS recognises only two modes of abduction: compelling by force, or inducing by any deceitful means, a person to go from any place. If neither force nor deceit is used, the definition is not satisfied.
  43. 43. (A) Section 139(4)(i) expressly includes "soliciting or receiving alms in a public place, whether under the pretence of ... selling articles" as begging. The other options are not mentioned in the definition.
  44. 44. (C) Section 140(1) BNS prescribes imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years, together with liability to fine, for kidnapping or abducting in order that the person may be murdered or so disposed of as to be put in danger of being murdered. Death is prescribed only under Section 140(2) for the ransom-related offence.
  45. 45. (A) IPC Section 364 (Kidnapping or abducting in order to murd) maps to BNS Section 140 (Kidnapping or abducting in order to murd) in the BNS.
  46. 46. (A) Section 142 states: 'Whoever, knowing that any person has been kidnapped or has been abducted, wrongfully conceals or confines such person, shall be punished...'. Thus the provision penalises wrongful concealment or confinement of a person known to be kidnapped or abducted.
  47. 47. (A) Section 143(1) expressly lists 'using threats' as one of the means (clause (a)) by which recruitment/transport/etc. for exploitation is committed. The provision also lists force, abduction, fraud, abuse of power and inducement; consent is immaterial per Explanation 2.
  48. 48. (C) IPC Section 370 (Trafficking of persons) maps to BNS Section 143 (Trafficking of person) in the BNS.
  49. 49. (A) Section 144(1) requires that the offender 'knowingly or having reason to believe that a child has been trafficked' engages the child 'for sexual exploitation.' The mental element specified relates to belief about trafficking; the provision penalises engaging a trafficked child for sexual exploitation regardless of the actor's belief about the nature of the work.
  50. 50. (C) Section 145 states punishment "with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment... for a term not exceeding ten years, and shall also be liable to fine." This indicates imprisonment (one of the stated terms) plus liability to fine are required under the provision.

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