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Practice paper — IPC Chapter 6 — Offences Against The State

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  1. 1.Which of the following acts are expressly made punishable by Section 121 of the IPC?

    • (A) Waging war against the Government of India only
    • (B) Attempting to wage war against the Government of India only
    • (C) Abetting the waging of war against the Government of India only
    • (D) Waging war, attempting to wage war, or abetting the waging of war against the Government of India
  2. 2.What punishment does Section 121 prescribe for an offender?

    • (A) Death, or imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine
    • (B) Death only
    • (C) Imprisonment for life only
    • (D) Fine only
  3. 3.If a person merely attempts to wage war against the Government of India but does not succeed, is that conduct covered by Section 121?

    • (A) No, only actual waging of war is covered
    • (B) Yes, attempting to wage such war is expressly covered
    • (C) Only if the attempt caused casualties
    • (D) Only if the attempt involves foreign involvement
  4. 4.Is mere abetment of the waging of war against the Government of India punishable under Section 121, even if the abettor did not personally wage or attempt the war?

    • (A) No, abetment is not covered by Section 121
    • (B) Yes, but only if the abetment led to an attempt
    • (C) Yes, abetting the waging of such war is expressly punishable
    • (D) Only if the abettor provided arms or financial support
  5. 5.According to the wording of Section 121, is the liability to fine provided there optional or mandatory when the prescribed punishment of death or imprisonment for life is imposed?

    • (A) The fine is optional and at the court's discretion
    • (B) The fine applies only if imprisonment for life is imposed
    • (C) The fine applies only if the death penalty is not given
    • (D) The offender "shall also be liable to fine," meaning the fine is imposed in addition to death or life imprisonment under the provision
  6. 6.Does Section 121A apply to conspiracies formed outside India?

    • (A) No — it applies only to conspiracies formed within India
    • (B) Yes — it applies to conspiracies formed within or without India
    • (C) Only if the conspiracy is later executed in India
    • (D) Only if one of the conspirators is an Indian citizen
  7. 7.Which of the following is covered by the phrase in Section 121A: 'conspires to overawe, by means of criminal force or the show of criminal force, the Central Government or any State Government'?

    • (A) Only the use of actual criminal force
    • (B) Only a mere show of force (without criminal force)
    • (C) Both the use of criminal force and the show of criminal force
    • (D) Neither use nor show of force
  8. 8.Which of the following correctly states the punishment prescribed by Section 121A?

    • (A) Imprisonment for life, or imprisonment of either description which may extend to ten years; and also liable to fine
    • (B) Death penalty
    • (C) Only imprisonment for up to ten years with no fine
    • (D) Only a fine
  9. 9.Under Section 121A, how does the liability to fine relate to the imprisonment prescribed?

    • (A) The fine is an additional liability alongside the imprisonment
    • (B) The fine replaces imprisonment
    • (C) A fine is imposed only if no imprisonment is awarded
    • (D) Section 121A does not contemplate any fine
  10. 10.Which of the following acts is expressly covered by Section 122 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

    • (A) Collecting arms or ammunition with the intention of waging or being prepared to wage war against the Government of India.
    • (B) Collecting arms for lawful hunting and sporting purposes.
    • (C) Collecting men to assist civil administration during a natural disaster.
    • (D) Delivering a speech advocating war without collecting men, arms or ammunition.
  11. 11.A person stockpiles weapons solely so as to be prepared to wage war against the Government of India but has no present plan to start hostilities. Is Section 122 attracted?

    • (A) Yes, because the provision covers intention to be prepared to wage war as well as intention to wage war.
    • (B) No, because actual commencement of hostilities is necessary for the offence.
    • (C) Yes, but only if the weapons are actually used in hostilities.
    • (D) No, unless the person also collects men in addition to arms or ammunition.
  12. 12.If the intention is to wage war against a State government (not the Government of India), does Section 122 apply as written?

    • (A) Yes; the phrase covers any government including State governments.
    • (B) Yes; but only if the central government is later affected.
    • (C) Only if there is also an intention to wage war against the Government of India.
    • (D) No; the provision specifically refers to waging war against the Government of India.
  13. 13.Which of the following correctly states the punishment provided by Section 122?

    • (A) Imprisonment for life only, with no alternative sentencing option.
    • (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term not exceeding ten years, with no option of life imprisonment.
    • (C) Imprisonment for life or imprisonment of either description for a term not exceeding ten years, and also liable to fine.
    • (D) Only a monetary fine or community service as alternate punishments.
  14. 14.Which of the following best describes the offence under Section 123 IPC?

    • (A) Concealing the existence of a design to wage war against the Government of India by any act or illegal omission.
    • (B) Waging war against the Government of India.
    • (C) Making a public threat to wage war against the Government of India.
    • (D) Reporting a conspiracy to the authorities to prevent war.
  15. 15.What is the maximum punishment prescribed by Section 123 IPC?

    • (A) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years and fine.
    • (B) Life imprisonment.
    • (C) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and fine.
    • (D) Death penalty.
  16. 16.Under Section 123 IPC, is it sufficient that a person merely knows that concealing information is likely to facilitate waging war, or must they have the specific intention to facilitate?

    • (A) Knowledge alone is insufficient; specific intention is always required.
    • (B) Neither knowledge nor intention is relevant under this section.
    • (C) Both specific intention and knowledge must be proved together.
    • (D) Either intending by such concealment to facilitate, or knowing it to be likely that such concealment will facilitate, suffices.
  17. 17.Which of the following situations would NOT be covered by Section 123 IPC as framed in the provision?

    • (A) Concealing the existence of a plan to wage war against the Government of India by an illegal omission.
    • (B) Hiding arms or means that might facilitate war without concealing any existence of a design to wage war.
    • (C) Concealing a design to wage war while knowing such concealment is likely to facilitate the waging of war.
    • (D) Actively concealing the existence of a design to wage war with intention to facilitate it.
  18. 18.Under Section 124 of the IPC, which persons are directly protected by the offence described?

    • (A) Only the President of India
    • (B) Only the Governor of a State
    • (C) Both the President of India and the Governor of any State
    • (D) Any public servant
  19. 19.Which mental element is expressly required by Section 124 IPC for the commission of the offence?

    • (A) Intention to induce or compel the President/Governor to exercise or refrain from exercising any lawful power
    • (B) Knowledge that the act may influence the President/Governor
    • (C) Negligence in dealing with the President/Governor
    • (D) Motive to gain political advantage
  20. 20.Which of the following would NOT amount to an offence under Section 124 IPC as stated in the provision?

    • (A) Assaulting the President by applying criminal force to compel him to act
    • (B) Peacefully urging the Governor, without criminal force or its show, to refrain from exercising a lawful power
    • (C) Overawing the Governor by the show of criminal force to compel him to exercise a power
    • (D) Attempting wrongfully to restrain the President with the intention of compelling him
  21. 21.If a person assaults a Governor intending to compel the Governor to exercise a power that is unlawful, is Section 124 IPC engaged?

    • (A) Yes — any assault to compel action is covered regardless of lawfulness of the power
    • (B) No — the provision applies where the intention is to induce or compel exercise or refrain from exercise of lawful powers
    • (C) Yes — the section covers attempt to compel any exercise of power, lawful or unlawful
    • (D) No — the section applies only when the Governor is actually prevented from exercising power
  22. 22.Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the provision as a mode by which the offence may be committed?

    • (A) Spoken words
    • (B) Written words
    • (C) Signs
    • (D) Private thoughts
  23. 23.Which of the following correctly states the punishments provided by the provision?

    • (A) Imprisonment for life (fine may be added), or imprisonment which may extend to three years (fine may be added), or fine
    • (B) Only imprisonment for life without any option of lesser sentence
    • (C) Only a fine
    • (D) Imprisonment which may extend to seven years or fine
  24. 24.Does the provision criminalize attempts as well as completed acts of bringing about hatred, contempt or disaffection?

    • (A) Only completed acts are criminalized; attempts are not covered
    • (B) Attempts are criminalized as well as completed acts
    • (C) Only attempts are criminalized; completed acts are not covered
    • (D) Neither completed acts nor attempts are criminalized
  25. 25.Against which of the following is the disaffection/hatred or contempt described in the provision directed?

    • (A) Private individuals
    • (B) Foreign governments
    • (C) The Government established by law in India
    • (D) Political parties
  26. 26.Which of the following acts is directly criminalised by Section 125 of the IPC as given?

    • (A) Waging war against the Government of any Asiatic Power in alliance or at peace with the Government of India
    • (B) Waging war against the Government of India within its territory
    • (C) Organising internal rebellion within an Indian State
    • (D) Publishing statements against foreign governments
  27. 27.Does Section 125 apply to attempts or abetment of the offence described?

    • (A) It applies only to completed acts of waging war
    • (B) It applies to attempts but not to abetment
    • (C) It applies to attempts to wage such war and to abetment of the waging of such war
    • (D) It applies to neither attempts nor abetment
  28. 28.A person wages war against the Government of a European Power which is at peace with the Government of India. Does Section 125, as-worded here, apply to that offence?

    • (A) Yes, it applies to any foreign power at peace with India
    • (B) No, it applies only to Asiatic Powers in alliance or at peace with India
    • (C) Yes, but only if the European Power is allied with India
    • (D) No, because the section applies only to internal offenses
  29. 29.If a person abets the waging of such war, what is the maximum punishment that Section 125 provides?

    • (A) A fine only
    • (B) Imprisonment for up to seven years only
    • (C) Imprisonment for life (life imprisonment) is available
    • (D) Death penalty
  30. 30.The phrase "imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years" in Section 125 means:

    • (A) The imprisonment for the term up to seven years may be either rigorous or simple
    • (B) The imprisonment must be rigorous for the lesser term
    • (C) The imprisonment must be simple for the lesser term
    • (D) Either description applies only to life imprisonment
  31. 31.Section 126 IPC applies to depredation on the territories of which of the following?

    • (A) Territories of the Government of India
    • (B) Territories of a Power at war with the Government of India
    • (C) Territories of any Power in alliance or at peace with the Government of India
    • (D) Any foreign territory regardless of its relation with the Government of India
  32. 32.Which of the following is criminalised by Section 126 IPC?

    • (A) Both committing depredation and making preparations to commit depredation
    • (B) Only the actual committing of depredation
    • (C) Only an attempt to commit depredation
    • (D) Only preparations that include use of arms
  33. 33.According to Section 126 IPC, which property is liable to forfeiture in respect of depredation?

    • (A) Only property actually used in committing such depredation
    • (B) No property forfeiture; only a fine is imposed
    • (C) Only property intended to be used in committing such depredation
    • (D) Property used or intended to be used in committing such depredation, or acquired by such depredation
  34. 34.Does Section 126 IPC expressly criminalise an "attempt" to commit depredation?

    • (A) Yes, it expressly criminalises attempts to commit depredation
    • (B) It criminalises attempts only if accompanied by foreign aid
    • (C) No; it criminalises committing depredation and making preparations, but does not expressly mention "attempts"
    • (D) Yes; it treats attempts and preparations as identical and criminalises both
  35. 35.What specific act does Section 127 of the Indian Penal Code punish?

    • (A) Receiving any property knowing it to have been taken in the commission of any of the offences mentioned in sections 125 and 126.
    • (B) Taking property by force or violence during war or depredation.
    • (C) General theft or robbery of movable property.
    • (D) Concealment of property obtained by legal means.
  36. 36.Does Section 127 require that the receiver had knowledge that the property was taken in the commission of the offences mentioned in sections 125 and 126?

    • (A) No; the offence is one of strict liability and knowledge is irrelevant.
    • (B) Yes; the offender must receive the property knowing it was taken in the commission of those offences.
    • (C) Only a reasonable belief is required, not actual knowledge.
    • (D) Only suspicion of wrongful origin is sufficient for liability.
  37. 37.Which of the following correctly states the provision regarding forfeiture under Section 127 IPC?

    • (A) Forfeiture of the property is discretionary and may be imposed by the court.
    • (B) Forfeiture is imposed only if imprisonment is also awarded.
    • (C) There is no provision for forfeiture; only fine and imprisonment apply.
    • (D) The offender "shall also be liable to ... forfeiture of the property so received," i.e., liability to forfeiture is prescribed by the section.
  38. 38.Does Section 127 apply to receiving property taken in the commission of any offence generally (for example ordinary theft), or is it limited in scope?

    • (A) It applies to receiving property taken in the commission of any offence, including ordinary theft.
    • (B) It is limited to property taken in the commission of the offences mentioned in sections 125 and 126.
    • (C) It applies only to offences committed by public officials.
    • (D) It applies only where the property was taken outside the territory of India.
  39. 39.Under Section 128 IPC, who can be held liable for allowing a prisoner to escape?

    • (A) A public servant
    • (B) Any private citizen
    • (C) The prisoner himself
    • (D) Any court or tribunal
  40. 40.Which categories of prisoners are specifically mentioned in Section 128 IPC as being covered by this offence?

    • (A) Convicts serving sentences
    • (B) Persons detained under civil process
    • (C) State prisoner or prisoner of war
    • (D) Political detainees
  41. 41.Section 128 refers to escape 'from any place in which such prisoner is confined.' If the prisoner escaped from a place where they were not confined, can this section apply?

    • (A) Yes, the location of escape is immaterial
    • (B) Yes, if the public servant had previously been custodian there
    • (C) No, the escape must be from a place in which the prisoner was confined
    • (D) No, the section applies only to escapes from prisons
  42. 42.Which of the following correctly states the punishments prescribed by Section 128 IPC?

    • (A) Imprisonment for life, or imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and also liable to fine
    • (B) Only imprisonment for life is prescribed
    • (C) Only imprisonment (rigorous or simple) for up to ten years is prescribed, without fine
    • (D) Only a fine is prescribed as punishment
  43. 43.Under Section 129 IPC, who is directly made liable for negligently suffering the escape of a prisoner?

    • (A) Any person present at the place of confinement
    • (B) A public servant having the custody of a State prisoner or prisoner of war
    • (C) The escaped prisoner themself
    • (D) The family members of the prisoner
  44. 44.What is the maximum term of imprisonment provided by Section 129 IPC for negligently suffering such prisoner to escape?

    • (A) One year
    • (B) Two years
    • (C) Three years
    • (D) Five years
  45. 45.Which of the following situations would fall within Section 129 IPC?

    • (A) A police officer negligently allows a State prisoner confined in a jail to escape.
    • (B) A private security guard negligently allows a civilian accused (not a State prisoner) to escape.
    • (C) A public servant intentionally conspires to set free a prisoner of war.
    • (D) A public servant negligently fails to prevent an unconfined person from leaving the premises.
  46. 46.Does Section 129 IPC require the escape to be from an official State jail only, or does it apply to any place of confinement?

    • (A) It applies only to escapes from official State jails.
    • (B) It applies to escape from any place of confinement in which the prisoner is confined.
    • (C) It applies only to prisons, excluding hospitals or temporary custody locations.
    • (D) It applies only if the confinement is by a court order.
  47. 47.Which of the following acts is expressly made an offence by Section 130 of the IPC?

    • (A) Assisting a State prisoner or prisoner of war to escape from lawful custody
    • (B) Rescuing or attempting to rescue such a prisoner
    • (C) Harbouring or concealing such a prisoner who has escaped from lawful custody
    • (D) All of the above
  48. 48.What punishment does Section 130 prescribe for a person convicted under it?

    • (A) Imprisonment for life, or imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and fine
    • (B) Imprisonment which may extend to fourteen years
    • (C) Death penalty in aggravated cases
    • (D) Only fine
  49. 49.Does Section 130 criminalise an attempt to rescue a State prisoner or prisoner of war from lawful custody?

    • (A) Yes; the provision expressly includes rescuing or attempting to rescue such a prisoner
    • (B) No; only a successful rescue is covered
    • (C) No; attempts are excluded and only aiding escape is covered
    • (D) Only if the attempt succeeds in allowing escape
  50. 50.Which of the following statements about harbouring in Section 130 is correct?

    • (A) Harbouring any State prisoner or prisoner of war while still in lawful custody is an offence under Section 130
    • (B) Section 130 criminalises harbouring or concealing any such prisoner who has escaped from lawful custody
    • (C) Harbouring is an offence only when committed before the prisoner escapes
    • (D) Harbouring is treated separately and is not mentioned in Section 130

Answer key

1. D2. A3. B4. C5. D6. B7. C8. A9. A10. A11. A12. D13. C14. A15. C16. D17. B18. C19. A20. B21. B22. D23. A24. B25. C26. A27. C28. B29. C30. A31. C32. A33. D34. C35. A36. B37. D38. B39. A40. C41. C42. A43. B44. C45. A46. B47. D48. A49. A50. B

Explanations

  1. 1. (D) The provision states: "Whoever wages war against the Government of India, or attempts to wage such war, or abets the waging of such war, shall be punished..." Thus all three—waging, attempting, and abetting—are covered by Section 121.
  2. 2. (A) Section 121 provides: the offender "shall be punished with death, or imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine." Therefore the statute prescribes death or life imprisonment and additionally liability to fine.
  3. 3. (B) The provision explicitly includes "attempts to wage such war" as punishable. No additional conditions (like casualties or foreign involvement) are stated in the text.
  4. 4. (C) Section 121 includes persons who "abets the waging of such war" in the list of those punishable. The text therefore makes abetment itself an offence without additional factual prerequisites in the provision.
  5. 5. (D) Section 121 states the offender "shall be punished with death, or imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine." The language "shall also be liable to fine" indicates liability to fine in addition to the principal punishment as provided in the text.
  6. 6. (B) The provision explicitly states 'Whoever within or without India conspires ...' indicating that the offence covers conspiracies formed either within India or outside India. The text does not impose the additional conditions set out in the other options.
  7. 7. (C) The clause lists both 'criminal force' and 'the show of criminal force' connected by 'or', so the section covers both actual criminal force and the show of criminal force. Therefore both forms of overawing are criminalised by the text.
  8. 8. (A) Section 121A provides that the offender 'shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.' The text does not provide for capital punishment and it includes liability to fine in addition to imprisonment.
  9. 9. (A) The provision states that the offender 'shall also be liable to fine,' which indicates that the liability to fine is in addition to the specified imprisonment. The text therefore contemplates a fine alongside imprisonment rather than as a substitute or not at all.
  10. 10. (A) Section 122 punishes whoever "collects men, arms or ammunition or otherwise prepares to wage war" with the requisite intention against the Government of India. The provision therefore covers collecting arms or ammunition with that intention, not lawful or administrative activities.
  11. 11. (A) Section 122 penalises preparing to wage war when done "with the intention of either waging or being prepared to wage war against the Government of India." Therefore preparing (being prepared) with that intention is sufficient without actual commencement.
  12. 12. (D) Section 122 specifically criminalises preparing to wage war "against the Government of India." The text does not by its terms refer to State governments, so it applies to intentions directed at the Government of India.
  13. 13. (C) Section 122 prescribes punishment of "imprisonment for life or imprisonment of either description for a term not exceeding ten years, and shall also be liable to fine." Thus life imprisonment and an alternative shorter term (up to ten years) are both provided, together with liability to fine.
  14. 14. (A) Section 123 punishes whoever, by any act, or by any illegal omission, conceals the existence of a design to wage war against the Government of India. The provision therefore targets concealment of the existence of a design rather than the act of waging war itself.
  15. 15. (C) The section states the offender 'shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.' Thus the maximum term specified is ten years plus fine.
  16. 16. (D) The section punishes concealment done 'intending by such concealment to facilitate, or knowing it to be likely that such concealment will facilitate, the waging of such war.' Thus either intention or knowledge that concealment is likely to facilitate suffices.
  17. 17. (B) Section 123 specifically penalises concealing 'the existence of a design to wage war against the Government of India.' Mere concealment of means (e.g. hiding weapons) without concealing the existence of any design is not covered by the text of this provision.
  18. 18. (C) The provision refers specifically to "the President of India, or Governor of any State," so both the President and Governors are the persons protected. No other categories of public servants are mentioned in the text.
  19. 19. (A) The section begins with "Whoever, with the intention of inducing or compelling the President... or Governor...", so an intention to induce or compel is the required mental element. Other states of mind like negligence or mere knowledge are not specified in the text.
  20. 20. (B) The offence requires assault, wrongful restraint, attempt to wrongfully restrain, or overawing by means of criminal force or the show of criminal force. Peaceful urging without criminal force or its show is not within the enumerated acts in the provision.
  21. 21. (B) The text specifies inducing or compelling the President/Governor "to exercise or refrain from exercising in any manner any of the lawful powers of such President or Governor." Thus the section is limited to influencing the exercise or non-exercise of lawful powers, not unlawful ones.
  22. 22. (D) The provision expressly lists "words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise" as modes of committing the offence. "Private thoughts" are not mentioned among these modes in the text.
  23. 23. (A) The provision states punishment as "imprisonment for life, to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment which may extend to three years, to which fine may be added, or with fine." Thus option 1 correctly reproduces the alternatives.
  24. 24. (B) The provision uses wording such as "brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection," which shows that both completed acts and attempts are covered by the offence.
  25. 25. (C) The provision specifies the target as "the Government established by law in India." It does not refer to private individuals, foreign governments, or political parties in the text.
  26. 26. (A) The provision expressly penalises whoever "wages war against the Government of any Asiatic Power in alliance or at peace with the Government of India." It does not refer to internal rebellion, general acts against India, or mere publication.
  27. 27. (C) The provision states "or attempts to wage such war, or abets the waging of such war," so attempts and abetment are both explicitly included and punishable under this section.
  28. 28. (B) The section specifically refers to "the Government of any Asiatic Power in alliance or at peace with the Government of India," so it is limited to Asiatic Powers and does not on its face cover non-Asiatic (e.g. European) powers.
  29. 29. (C) The provision says whoever "wages war ... or abets" shall be punished "with imprisonment for life, to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years ... or with fine." Thus life imprisonment is one available maximum.
  30. 30. (A) The provision uses the phrase "imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years," which means the lesser-term sentence (up to seven years) can be of either description (rigorous or simple). The text distinguishes this alternative from the separate option of imprisonment for life.
  31. 31. (C) The provision expressly refers to depredation "on the territories of any Power in alliance or at peace with the Government of India," so it applies to such Powers' territories.
  32. 32. (A) Section 126 punishes "whoever commits depredation, or makes preparations to commit depredation," so both the act and preparations to commit it are criminalised under this provision.
  33. 33. (D) The provision makes the offender "liable to fine and to forfeiture of any property used or intended to be used in committing such depredation, or acquired by such depredation," thus covering all three categories.
  34. 34. (C) The text punishes those who "commit depredation, or make preparations to commit depredation." It does not expressly use the word "attempt," so only committing and preparations are mentioned in the provision.
  35. 35. (A) Section 127 states: "Whoever receives any property knowing the same to have been taken in the commission of any of the offences mentioned in sections 125 and 126..." Thus the offence is receiving such property with knowledge of its origin.
  36. 36. (B) The section uses the phrase "receives any property knowing the same to have been taken...", which clearly requires knowledge of the property's wrongful origin for the offence to be made out.
  37. 37. (D) Section 127 specifies that the offender "shall also be liable to fine and to forfeiture of the property so received," indicating liability to forfeiture is part of the statutory penalties set out in the provision.
  38. 38. (B) The section expressly refers to property "taken in the commission of any of the offences mentioned in sections 125 and 126," so its scope is limited to those offences rather than to any offence generally.
  39. 39. (A) The provision begins: 'Whoever, being a public servant and having the custody of any State prisoner or prisoner of war, voluntarily allows such prisoner to escape...' Thus the offender must be a public servant who has custody of the prisoner.
  40. 40. (C) The text specifies 'any State prisoner or prisoner of war.' Therefore the offence is directed at allowing a State prisoner or a prisoner of war to escape.
  41. 41. (C) The offence is committed when the public servant 'voluntarily allows such prisoner to escape from any place in which such prisoner is confined.' Thus the escape must be from a place where the prisoner was confined for the section to apply.
  42. 42. (A) The provision prescribes 'imprisonment for life, or imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to fine.' Thus the courts may impose life imprisonment or imprisonment (rigorous or simple) up to ten years, and the offender is also liable to a fine.
  43. 43. (B) Section 129 penalises "whoever, being a public servant and having the custody of any State prisoner or prisoner of war, negligently suffers such prisoner to escape." Thus liability attaches to a public servant who has custody of the State prisoner or prisoner of war.
  44. 44. (C) The provision states the offender "shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine." Therefore the maximum term is three years.
  45. 45. (A) Section 129 applies where a public servant "having the custody of any State prisoner or prisoner of war, negligently suffers such prisoner to escape from any place of confinement." Only option A satisfies custody, the described prisoners, negligence, and escape from confinement.
  46. 46. (B) The provision expressly refers to escape "from any place of confinement in which such prisoner is confined," so it is not limited to official State jails but covers any place of confinement.
  47. 47. (D) Section 130 lists aiding escape, rescuing or attempting rescue, and harbouring or concealing a prisoner who has escaped from lawful custody as offences. Therefore all the listed acts are expressly included in the provision.
  48. 48. (A) The provision states punishment as imprisonment for life, or imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and also liability to fine. None of the other listed punishments match the text.
  49. 49. (A) The text explicitly criminalises 'rescues or attempts to rescue any such prisoner', so an attempt to rescue falls within Section 130. The provision therefore covers both successful and attempted rescues.
  50. 50. (B) Section 130 specifically refers to 'harbours or conceals any such prisoner who has escaped from lawful custody', so the offence of harbouring in this section applies to prisoners who have escaped from lawful custody. Harbouring a prisoner still in custody is not the scenario described in the text.

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