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Practice paper — IPC Chapter 2 — General Explanations
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1.What primary rule does Section 6 of the IPC state about definitions, penal provisions, and illustrations in the Code?
- (A) They must be understood subject to the exceptions in the Chapter entitled 'General Exceptions', even when those exceptions are not repeated.
- (B) They are exempt from the Chapter of General Exceptions unless the exceptions are explicitly repeated.
- (C) Only penal provisions (not definitions or illustrations) are subject to the General Exceptions.
- (D) General Exceptions apply only when expressly referred to within each definition or illustration.
2.Does Section 6 make the Chapter of General Exceptions applicable to definitions that are not 'definitions of an Offence' (for example, other general definitions in the Code)?
- (A) Yes — it applies to every definition in the Code, whether of an offence or otherwise.
- (B) No — it applies specifically to 'every definition of an Offence' and to penal provisions and illustrations as stated.
- (C) Only if the other definition is contained within a penal provision.
- (D) Only if Parliament has elsewhere declared those other definitions to be subject to the General Exceptions.
3.If a word appearing in the IPC is not explained anywhere in the Code, what does Section 7 itself prescribe about that word's meaning?
- (A) Section 7 provides a fallback by importing the nearest Explanation from another part.
- (B) Section 7 requires reference to general dictionaries to fix the meaning.
- (C) Section 7 does not fix meanings for words not explained in the Code; it only governs expressions that are explained in the Code.
- (D) Section 7 allows courts to invent an Explanation which then applies throughout the Code.
4.Does Section 8 mean that a statute which uses the pronoun "she" must be read to include males as well?
- (A) Yes — the inclusive rule is reciprocal and applies to "she" as well.
- (B) No — Section 8 speaks only about the pronoun "he" and its derivatives; it does not state that "she" includes males.
- (C) Yes — but only in criminal statutes.
- (D) No — unless a court reads "she" to include males in a particular case.
5.If a statute uses the phrase 'the defendants shall be present,' does Section 9 permit reading that phrase as referring to a single defendant?
- (A) No — 'defendants' must be read only as plural.
- (B) Yes — but only if a court orders it so.
- (C) Only if the case in fact involves more than one accused.
- (D) Yes — words importing the plural include the singular unless the contrary appears from the context.
6.Does the word "man" in Section 10 extend to male animals?
- (A) Yes — it applies to any male being of any age
- (B) Yes — if the animal is treated as a 'person'
- (C) Only if domesticated
- (D) No — it denotes a male human being
7.A neighbourhood committee formed informally without incorporation wishes to be treated as a 'person' under Section 11. What does the provision indicate?
- (A) No — informal groups are excluded
- (B) Only if the committee registers as a company
- (C) Only if it acquires separate legal personality
- (D) Yes — 'whether incorporated or not' such bodies are included
8.If a statute refers to an offence affecting the 'public', would Section 12 indicate that a 'class of the public' is covered by the term 'public'?
- (A) No, a class is excluded.
- (B) Yes; 'public' includes any class of the public.
- (C) Only if that class is larger than a simple majority.
- (D) Only if the class is an officially registered organization.
9.Which of the following best describes the phrase "servant of Government" as defined in Section 14?
- (A) An officer appointed by a private contractor to work for governmental projects
- (B) Any person serving anywhere in the world under some government authority
- (C) Any officer or servant continued, appointed or employed in India by or under the authority of Government
- (D) An elected public representative holding an official post
10.What is the title of Section 15 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 as shown in the provision?
- (A) Territorial Extent
- (B) British India
- (C) General Exceptions
- (D) Punishments
11.Does the term 'Government' in Section 17 include municipal corporations or local authorities?
- (A) Yes, municipal corporations are included
- (B) No, municipal corporations/local authorities are not included
- (C) Only municipal corporations in States are included
- (D) Only municipal corporations when performing sovereign functions are included
12.Under Section 18 of the Indian Penal Code, what is the meaning of the term "India"?
- (A) The territory of India including the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
- (B) The territory of India excluding the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
- (C) Only the mainland territory of India, excluding islands and territories.
- (D) The Republic of India as internationally recognized, without any internal exclusions.
13.Which of the following best captures the definition of "Judge" under Section 19 of the IPC?
- (A) Only persons officially designated as Judges by title
- (B) Only persons who are empowered by law to give judgments (even if not called Judges)
- (C) Both persons officially designated as Judges and persons empowered by law to give definitive judgments
- (D) Only members of collegiate judicial bodies
14.Under Section 20, which description correctly captures the meaning of 'Court of Justice'?
- (A) A single Judge empowered by law to act judicially alone, regardless of whether the Judge is acting judicially
- (B) A body of Judges empowered by law to act judicially as a body, regardless of whether the body is acting judicially
- (C) Either a Judge empowered by law to act judicially alone, or a body of Judges empowered by law to act judicially as a body, but only when such Judge or body is acting judicially
- (D) Any forum where judicial functions are performed, whether or not empowered by law to act judicially
15.Which of the following best captures the limiting condition in the definition of 'Court of Justice' under Section 20?
- (A) A Judge or body is a Court of Justice as long as they have the statutory power, irrespective of how they act
- (B) A Judge who is part of a body is always a Court of Justice when the body exists
- (C) A Judge or a body of Judges is a Court of Justice only when that Judge or that body is actually acting judicially
- (D) Only bodies of Judges (not individual Judges) can be Courts of Justice when they act judicially
16.Which statement best captures the effect of the quoted provision taken alone?
- (A) It introduces that 'public servant' means a person who falls under any of the descriptions that follow, so the full definition depends on the subsequent descriptions.
- (B) It by itself provides a complete and exhaustive definition of 'public servant'.
- (C) It expands 'public servant' to include all government contractors automatically.
- (D) It restricts 'public servant' to only elected office-holders.
17.A statue merely rests on a plinth that is attached to the earth but is not fixed or fastened. Under Section 22, is the statue movable property?
- (A) Yes — because it is not attached or permanently fastened to something attached to the earth
- (B) No — anything on a plinth attached to the earth is itself immovable
- (C) Yes — but only if it is made of metal
- (D) No — statues are always considered part of land
18.Which description correctly captures 'losing wrongfully' under Section 23?
- (A) It means only when a person is wrongfully deprived of property (i.e., physically taken).
- (B) It means only when a person is wrongfully kept out of property (i.e., prevented from access).
- (C) It means only when the loss is caused by the State or a public official.
- (D) It includes both when a person is wrongfully kept out of any property, as well as when such person is wrongfully deprived of property.
19.A person performs an act intending to cause wrongful gain to A and wrongful loss to B. Under Section 24, is the act 'dishonestly' done?
- (A) No, not dishonest because both gain and loss cancel out
- (B) Only dishonest if the gain exceeds the loss
- (C) Only dishonest if A and B are different persons
- (D) Yes, because intention to cause wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another falls within 'dishonestly'
20.Which of the following mental states by itself would be insufficient to make an act 'fraudulently' under Section 25?
- (A) Intent to defraud
- (B) Deliberate deceit
- (C) Intention to deceive others
- (D) Negligence
21.Which of the following would NOT satisfy the requirement of 'reason to believe' under Section 26?
- (A) Strong circumstantial evidence giving adequate grounds to believe
- (B) Testimony from a reliable witness that creates adequate grounds
- (C) Documented contemporaneous notes amounting to sufficient cause
- (D) A mere unsubstantiated suspicion or hunch without sufficient cause
22.A servant holds goods which belong to his master and is holding them on the master's behalf. Under Section 27, whose possession is it?
- (A) Servant's possession
- (B) Joint possession of servant and master
- (C) Master's possession
- (D) Possession of the goods is ownerless
23.A craftsman deliberately causes one item to resemble another but neither intends deception nor knows deception is likely. Under Section 28, is the craftsman guilty of 'counterfeiting'?
- (A) Yes, because causing resemblance alone establishes counterfeiting.
- (B) Yes, but only if the resemblance is exact and immediate.
- (C) No, because Section 28 requires intention to deceive or knowledge that deception is likely in addition to causing resemblance.
- (D) Only if deception is practiced later by some third party.
24.A carved inscription on a stone tablet records an agreement. Is this a 'document' under Section 29?
- (A) No — only ink or paint writings qualify
- (B) No — carvings are not covered
- (C) Yes — it is matter expressed upon a substance by means of marks
- (D) Yes — but only if accompanied by handwriting
25.Where must one look to find the meaning of "electronic record" for the purposes of the IPC, as per Section 29A?
- (A) Section 29A of the IPC itself.
- (B) Clause (t) of sub-section (1) of section 2 of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
- (C) The IPC Schedule of Definitions.
- (D) The Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
26.Can an oral statement acknowledging that a person is under legal liability qualify as a 'valuable security' under Section 30?
- (A) Yes, because it acknowledges legal liability and so is a valuable security.
- (B) No, because Section 30 refers specifically to a document, not an oral statement.
- (C) Yes, but only if it is later reduced to writing and signed.
- (D) Only if admissible in court as evidence of liability.
27.Which of the following best captures the meaning of "a will" under the provision?
- (A) A legal contract between parties
- (B) The final will only
- (C) A living trust
- (D) A testamentary document
28.Under Section 32 of the Indian Penal Code, words which refer to acts include which of the following?
- (A) Only lawful omissions
- (B) Illegal omissions
- (C) Both lawful and illegal omissions
- (D) Only positive acts (conduct)
29.Under Section 33, the word "act" denotes:
- (A) Only a single act.
- (B) Only a series of acts.
- (C) Both a series of acts and a single act.
- (D) Neither a single act nor a series of acts.
30.What is the legal effect under the provision when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all?
- (A) Each person is liable for that act as if he had done it alone.
- (B) Only the person who actually committed the physical act is liable.
- (C) Only the mastermind or leader is liable.
- (D) No one is liable unless each person physically participated.
31.What principal rule does Section 35 of the IPC lay down about liability when an act is criminal only by reason of criminal knowledge or intention and is done by several persons?
- (A) Only the person who first planned the act is liable.
- (B) Each person who joins in the act with such knowledge or intention is liable as if he had done it alone with that knowledge or intention.
- (C) Only those who physically perform the criminal part of the act are liable.
- (D) All participants are liable regardless of their knowledge or intention.
32.Can the criminal knowledge or intention of one participant be imputed under Section 35 to another participant who did not possess that knowledge or intention?
- (A) Yes — Section 35 imputes the knowledge of one participant to all others.
- (B) No — only those who join with the requisite knowledge or intention are made liable 'as if' they alone did the act with that knowledge or intention.
- (C) Yes — but only if the participants are related by blood or contract.
- (D) Yes — but only where the majority of participants had the intention.
33.Which statement correctly describes the legal character of Section 36 IPC?
- (A) It creates a new substantive offence applicable only when act and omission combine.
- (B) It is a rule of construction clarifying that when an offence may be caused by act or omission, a mixture of both is to be regarded as the same offence.
- (C) It decriminalises omissions whenever they accompany an act.
- (D) It mandates a higher punishment where both an act and an omission are present.
34.If an individual intentionally performs one act that is merely one of several possible means of committing an offence (and that single act alone would not by itself complete the offence), does Section 37 make that individual liable?
- (A) No — liability arises only if the single act by itself constitutes the offence
- (B) Yes — intentionally doing any one of the several acts that constitute the offence amounts to co-operation and thus liability
- (C) Only if the individual’s act directly caused the offence’s result
- (D) Only if the individual intended the entire sequence of acts by all participants
35.Must all persons concerned in the commission of a criminal act be prosecuted for the identical offence under Section 38?
- (A) Yes — the law requires identical charges against all concerned.
- (B) No — only those who performed the physical act can be charged.
- (C) Only if the offences are of the same legal category.
- (D) No — they may be guilty of different offences by means of that act.
36.Which scenario would NOT make causing an effect "voluntary" under Section 39?
- (A) He intended the effect and used means to cause it.
- (B) He did not intend the effect but knew the means were likely to cause it.
- (C) He neither intended the effect nor had reason to believe the means were likely to cause it.
- (D) He had reason to believe the means were likely to cause it though he did not intend the effect.
37.Which statement best captures the scope of the term 'offence' under Section 40 IPC?
- (A) It includes any wrongful act, whether punishable or not
- (B) It is confined to things made punishable by this Code, subject to specified exceptions
- (C) It defines offences under all Indian enactments and statutes
- (D) It only applies to clauses 2 and 3 of the section
38.Consider a nationwide statute setting rules for road use and traffic applicable to all road users. Under Section 41, is this a 'special law'?
- (A) No — it cannot be a special law because it applies to everyone.
- (B) No — special laws must be limited to a local area.
- (C) Only if it singles out named individuals.
- (D) Yes — because it is applicable to a particular subject (traffic/road use).
39.A statute applies throughout India except in one State (it is not applicable only to that State). Under Section 42, is that statute a 'local law'?
- (A) Yes — because it is not uniformly applicable across India.
- (B) Not a law at all.
- (C) Yes — if the excluded State requests exclusion.
- (D) No — because it is not applicable only to a particular part of India.
40.An act is expressly prohibited by a regulation but the regulation provides no criminal penalty and no private right of action. Under Section 43, is that act "illegal"?
- (A) No, it is not illegal unless omission is an offence
- (B) No, it must at least furnish ground for civil action
- (C) Yes, only if common law recognises a duty
- (D) Yes — being "prohibited by law" is sufficient to be "illegal"
41.Does Section 44 IPC include mental suffering within the meaning of "injury"?
- (A) Yes, mental harm is included as injury.
- (B) No, it is limited to bodily harm.
- (C) No, it covers reputation and property only.
- (D) Only if mental suffering leads to physical harm.
42.If a statute uses the word "life" in a section clearly dealing with trees or ecosystems, how should the word "life" be interpreted under Section 45?
- (A) It must still mean human life regardless of context
- (B) It refers only to born persons, not plants
- (C) No — the context may indicate a non-human meaning of "life"
- (D) It should be read as legal personality
43.If a penal provision refers to the "death" of a "beast" within its text, how should the word "death" be interpreted under Section 46?
- (A) It must still be read as human death regardless of other words
- (B) It can only mean animal death if another statute so provides
- (C) It may be read as non-human death if the context clearly indicates that meaning
- (D) It automatically denotes legal extinction of an entity rather than biological death
44.Is a dead horse an "animal" under Section 47 IPC?
- (A) Yes — because it is a non-human creature
- (B) Yes — because the term focuses on species not life status
- (C) No — because Section 47 defines "animal" as a living creature and the horse is not alive
- (D) No — because Section 47 applies only to smaller creatures
45.A small boat built to carry goods along a river — would it be considered a 'vessel' under Section 48?
- (A) No — only large ships qualify as vessels
- (B) No — only if it also carries people
- (C) Yes — because it is made for the conveyance by water of property
- (D) It depends on whether it is registered
46.When a statute uses the word "month" (Section 49 IPC), it should be interpreted as:
- (A) A lunar month
- (B) A thirty-day period irrespective of calendar
- (C) A month reckoned according to the British calendar
- (D) A month of the Indian national calendar
47.Under Section 50 IPC, by which of the following are sections identified?
- (A) By suffixing numeral figures after the text.
- (B) By prefixed letters or alphabets.
- (C) By prefixed numeral figures.
- (D) By headings or titles alone.
48.Under Section 51 IPC, the term "oath" expressly includes which of the following?
- (A) A solemn affirmation substituted by law for an oath
- (B) A personal promise to obey a court's orders
- (C) An affidavit only if sworn in open court
- (D) A monetary penalty for giving false evidence
49.Under Section 52 of the IPC, which of the following is required for an act or belief to be considered 'in good faith'?
- (A) Absence of malice
- (B) Due care and attention
- (C) Honest intention alone
- (D) Legal right or authority
50.According to Section 52A, which of the following best describes activities that the word "harbour" includes?
- (A) Supplying a person with shelter, food, drink, money, clothes, arms, ammunition or means of conveyance, or assisting a person by any means to evade apprehension
- (B) Only providing shelter and food to a person
- (C) Only supplying arms and ammunition to a person
- (D) Only providing means of conveyance to a person to evade the law
Answer key
1. A2. B3. C4. B5. D6. D7. D8. B9. C10. B11. B12. B13. C14. C15. C16. A17. A18. D19. D20. D21. D22. C23. C24. C25. B26. B27. D28. B29. C30. A31. B32. B33. B34. B35. D36. C37. B38. D39. D40. D41. A42. C43. C44. C45. C46. C47. C48. A49. B50. A
Explanations
- 1. (A) Section 6 states that every definition of an Offence, every penal provision and every illustration shall be understood subject to the exceptions in the Chapter entitled 'General Exceptions', though those exceptions are not repeated. This means the General Exceptions are to be read into them even if not restated.
- 2. (B) Section 6 explicitly limits its scope to 'every definition of an Offence, every penal provision and every illustration of every such definition or penal provision.' It does not state that it applies to other kinds of definitions, so it is confined to the items listed.
- 3. (C) Section 7 applies to "Every expression which is explained in any part of this Code" and prescribes how such expressions are to be used. It does not purport to supply meanings for expressions that are not explained anywhere in the Code.
- 4. (B) Section 8 specifically states that the pronoun "he" and its derivatives are used for any person, whether male or female. It does not address the pronoun "she," so one cannot, from this provision alone, conclude that "she" is to be read as including males.
- 5. (D) Section 9 expressly states that words importing the plural include the singular unless the contrary appears from the context. Therefore 'defendants' can be read to include a single defendant absent a contrary context.
- 6. (D) The definition in Section 10 specifies 'man' as "a male human being of any age," so it is confined to human beings and does not include animals.
- 7. (D) Section 11 states the word 'person' includes any Company or Association or body of persons, 'whether incorporated or not.' Thus an informal, unincorporated committee is included as a 'person' under the provision.
- 8. (B) Section 12 states: "The word 'public' includes any class of the public..." so a class of the public is within the scope of the term 'public' as defined by this provision.
- 9. (C) The provision states that the words "servant of Government" denote any officer or servant continued, appointed or employed in India by or under the authority of Government. This option matches the textual definition exactly.
- 10. (B) The provision header reads 'Section 15 — British India', so the title of Section 15 is 'British India'. The Act is cited as the Indian Penal Code, 1860 in the provision.
- 11. (B) Section 17 defines 'Government' specifically as the Central Government or the Government of a State. Municipal corporations or local authorities are not mentioned in the provision and therefore are not included by this definition.
- 12. (B) Section 18 defines "India" as "the territory of India excluding the State of Jammu and Kashmir." Therefore the correct meaning under this section is the territory of India with the explicit exclusion of the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
- 13. (C) Section 19 states that the word "Judge" denotes not only every person officially designated as a Judge, but also every person who is empowered by law to give, in any legal proceeding, a definitive judgment (or a judgment which could become definitive). Thus it includes both categories.
- 14. (C) Section 20 defines 'Court of Justice' as either a Judge empowered by law to act judicially alone or a body of Judges empowered to act judicially as a body, and it qualifies this by adding 'when such Judge or body of Judges is acting judicially.' Thus the label applies only in those circumstances.
- 15. (C) Section 20 explicitly adds the temporal qualification 'when such Judge or body of Judges is acting judicially.' This limits the application of the term 'Court of Justice' to occasions when the empowered Judge or body is performing judicial acts.
- 16. (A) The text says the words denote a person "falling under any of the descriptions hereinafter following," so the quoted provision is introductory and makes the definition contingent on the descriptions that follow rather than being a standalone exhaustive definition.
- 17. (A) Section 22 excludes things "attached to the earth or permanently fastened to anything which is attached to the earth." A statue merely resting on a plinth is not attached nor permanently fastened, so it remains corporeal movable property under the provision.
- 18. (D) The provision defines 'losing wrongfully' as including both being 'wrongfully kept out of any property' and being 'wrongfully deprived of property.' Both situations are expressly included.
- 19. (D) The provision states that doing anything with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another is 'dishonestly'. Intending wrongful gain to A and wrongful loss to B therefore satisfies this definition.
- 20. (D) Section 25 requires that the thing be done 'with intent to defraud.' Negligence does not amount to intent to defraud, so negligence alone is insufficient to make an act 'fraudulently.'
- 21. (D) Section 26 requires 'sufficient cause to believe.' A mere unsubstantiated suspicion or hunch lacks sufficient cause and therefore would not satisfy the definition in the provision.
- 22. (C) Section 27 provides that when property is in the possession of a person's servant on account of that person, it is in that person's possession. Since the servant holds the goods on the master's behalf, the possession is treated as the master's.
- 23. (C) Section 28 requires that the person 'causes one thing to resemble another' and either intends by means of that resemblance to practice deception or knows it is likely deception will be practiced. Mere causing of resemblance without intent or knowledge does not meet the definition.
- 24. (C) Section 29 covers matter "expressed or described upon any substance by means of letters, figures or marks," so a carved inscription (marks on stone) falls within the definition.
- 25. (B) Section 29A states that the words “electronic record” shall have the meaning assigned to them in clause (t) of sub‑section (1) of section 2 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, so that clause is the source for the meaning.
- 26. (B) Section 30 speaks of a 'document' which creates or acknowledges legal rights or liabilities. An oral statement is not a document, so it does not fall within the definition given in Section 30.
- 27. (D) Section 31 defines the phrase explicitly: "The words 'a will' denote any testamentary document." Thus the best capture is 'a testamentary document.'
- 28. (B) Section 32 states that "words which refer to acts done extend also to illegal omissions." It therefore expressly includes illegal omissions, not lawful omissions or only positive acts.
- 29. (C) Section 33 states that "The word 'act' denotes as well a series of acts as a single act." Therefore the term 'act' can mean either a single act or a series of acts.
- 30. (A) The provision states that when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, "each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone." Therefore liability attaches to each person as if he had done the act himself.
- 31. (B) Section 35 states that whenever an act is criminal only because it is done with criminal knowledge or intention and is done by several persons, each person who joins in the act with that knowledge or intention is liable 'in the same manner as if the act were done by him alone' with that knowledge or intention. Thus liability attaches to each joiner who possesses the requisite knowledge or intention.
- 32. (B) Section 35 makes clear that liability attaches to 'each of such persons who joins in the act with such knowledge or intention' and treats them 'in the same manner as if the act were done by him alone' with that knowledge or intention. It therefore does not impute one person's knowledge to another who did not join with that knowledge or intention.
- 33. (B) Section 36 states 'it is to be understood that the causing of that effect partly by an act and partly by an omission is the same offence,' which is a rule of interpretation clarifying how existing offences are to be understood, not the creation of a new offence or an enhanced penalty.
- 34. (B) Section 37 states that when an offence is committed by means of several acts, whoever intentionally co-operates in the commission by doing any one of those acts commits the offence. Thus even if the single act alone would not complete the offence, intentionally doing one of the constituent acts makes the person liable.
- 35. (D) Section 38 does not mandate identical charges; it states that several persons engaged or concerned in the commission of a criminal act may be guilty of different offences by means of that act, allowing differing charges.
- 36. (C) Section 39 requires either intention to cause the effect by those means or that he knew or had reason to believe the means were likely to cause it. If he neither intended nor had reason to believe, the provision's conditions are not met.
- 37. (B) Section 40 expressly defines 'offence' as 'a thing made punishable by this Code,' and immediately qualifies that definition by excluding the Chapters and sections mentioned in clauses 2 and 3, so the scope is confined to the Code with those exceptions.
- 38. (D) Section 41 defines a 'special law' as a law applicable to a particular subject. A statute dealing specifically with traffic or road use is directed at that particular subject and thus falls within the definition of a special law.
- 39. (D) Section 42 requires that a 'local law' be "applicable only to a particular part of India." A statute that applies almost everywhere except one State is not "only" applicable to a particular part, so it does not meet the definition of a local law.
- 40. (D) Section 43 states that "illegal" applies to anything which is prohibited by law, whether or not it is an offence or gives rise to civil action. Thus prohibition by law alone suffices to make it "illegal."
- 41. (A) Section 44 expressly includes harm to the mind as one of the forms of "injury." Therefore mental suffering falls within the definition of injury under this provision.
- 42. (C) Section 45 provides a default meaning but permits an exception: "The word ‘life’ denotes the life of a human being, unless the contrary appears from the context." If the context clearly points to non-human life, that contrary context controls.
- 43. (C) Section 46 gives a default meaning of human death but allows departure "if the contrary appears from the context." If context speaks of a beast, that contrary context permits a non-human reading.
- 44. (C) Section 47 defines "animal" as any living creature other than a human being. A dead horse is not a living creature, so it does not fall within that definition.
- 45. (C) Section 48 defines 'vessel' as anything made for the conveyance by water of human beings or of property; a boat built to carry goods is therefore a vessel. The provision makes no distinction based on size or registration.
- 46. (C) Section 49 provides that wherever the word 'month' is used it is to be understood that the month is to be reckoned according to the British calendar. Hence the month must be taken as per the British calendar.
- 47. (C) The provision expressly says sections are distinguished by 'prefixed numeral figures.' It does not indicate suffixing numerals, letters, or headings as the identifying method.
- 48. (A) Section 51 states "The word 'oath' includes a solemn affirmation substituted by law for an oath..." so a solemn affirmation substituted by law is explicitly included. The other options are not mentioned in the definition.
- 49. (B) Section 52 states: 'Nothing is said to be done or believed in "good faith" which is done or believed without due care and attention.' This indicates that due care and attention is required for an act or belief to be regarded as in good faith.
- 50. (A) The provision states that, except in the specified exceptions, the word "harbour" includes supplying shelter, food, drink, money, clothes, arms, ammunition or means of conveyance, or assisting a person by any means to evade apprehension. This mirrors option 1 exactly.