संSamvidhan
Practice paper — IPC Chapter 16 — Offences Affecting The Human Body
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1.Which of the following mental states is NOT mentioned in Section 299 IPC as constituting culpable homicide?
- (A) Intention of causing death
- (B) Intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death
- (C) Knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death
- (D) Simple negligence or carelessness
2.If an offender intends (or knows his act is likely to cause the death of) person A but, without intending or foreseeing it, causes the death of person B, what does Section 301 IPC prescribe about the nature of the culpable homicide?
- (A) It must be treated as a completely different offence determined solely by the identity of B.
- (B) The offender is liable only for a lesser form of culpable homicide because B was unintended.
- (C) The culpable homicide is of the description it would have been if he had caused the death of the person whose death he intended or knew himself likely to cause (A).
- (D) Section 301 requires separate proceedings to decide the description after conviction.
3.Does Section 303 IPC apply to a person who is under a non-life sentence (for example, ten years' imprisonment) and then commits murder?
- (A) Yes — it applies to anyone under sentence of imprisonment
- (B) Yes — but only if the ten-year sentence was for a violent offence
- (C) No — it applies only to persons under sentence of imprisonment for life
- (D) Only if the murder was committed inside the prison
4.Does Section 304A IPC, by its wording, cover causing death by omission (failure to act)?
- (A) Yes — it applies to any act or omission causing death.
- (B) Yes — it applies if the omission is negligent.
- (C) No — it applies only when the act is intentional.
- (D) No — it applies only to doing any rash or negligent act.
5.If a person abets the suicide of a 17-year-old who then dies by suicide, what punishment does Section 305 IPC authorise?
- (A) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years only
- (B) Death or imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years, and liable to fine
- (C) Only imprisonment for life
- (D) No punishment under Section 305; the abettor is immune
6.Is actual death required to constitute the offence under Section 307 IPC?
- (A) Yes; actual death must have occurred for Section 307 to apply
- (B) Yes, unless hurt is caused
- (C) No; death need not occur—liability depends on doing an act "with such intention or knowledge, and under such circumstances that, if he by that act caused death, he would be guilty of murder"
- (D) No; death need not occur but the punishment is only a fine
7.What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed by Section 309 IPC?
- (A) Six months
- (B) Two years
- (C) One year
- (D) Life imprisonment
8.Besides imprisonment, what additional liability does the provision place on a person who is a thug?
- (A) Probation
- (B) Community service
- (C) Fine
- (D) Solitary confinement
9.Does this section apply depending on whether the woman is 'quick with child'?
- (A) Yes — it applies only if the woman is quick with child
- (B) Yes — it applies only if the woman is not quick with child
- (C) No — it applies whether the woman is quick with child or not
- (D) It applies only to non-pregnant women
10.What is the maximum punishment prescribed by Section 315 for an act that meets its requirements (and is not done in good faith to save the mother's life)?
- (A) Imprisonment for life
- (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, or with fine, or with both
- (C) Imprisonment up to seven years and mandatory fine
- (D) Death penalty
11.Who, according to Section 317 IPC, can commit the offence of exposing and abandoning a child under twelve years?
- (A) The father or mother of the child, or any person having the care of such child
- (B) Any person who finds a child and leaves it
- (C) Only the biological father or mother
- (D) Only a legally appointed guardian
12.According to the provision, which of the following is NOT required to constitute 'hurt'?
- (A) Causing bodily pain to a person
- (B) Causing disease to a person
- (C) Causing infirmity to a person
- (D) Intention or motive to cause the harm
13.Which of the following correctly states the essential mental element(s) required for an act to be 'voluntarily to cause hurt' under Section 321 IPC?
- (A) The act must be done with the intention of causing hurt or with the knowledge that the act is likely to cause hurt, and the hurt must actually be caused.
- (B) Any mere intention to cause hurt is sufficient even if no hurt is caused.
- (C) Negligence or inadvertence resulting in hurt is sufficient without intention or knowledge.
- (D) An attempt to cause hurt without actual hurt being caused qualifies as 'voluntarily to cause hurt'.
14.What is the offence described in Section 323 of the Indian Penal Code?
- (A) Voluntarily causing hurt
- (B) Causing grievous hurt
- (C) Attempt to cause hurt
- (D) Criminal intimidation
15.Which of the following correctly states the punishment under Section 325 of the IPC?
- (A) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and liability to fine
- (B) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, and liability to fine
- (C) Life imprisonment or death, and liability to fine
- (D) Only a fine, with no imprisonment
16.Under Section 326A IPC, what is the minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for causing grievous hurt by throwing or administering acid?
- (A) Not less than 5 years
- (B) Not less than 10 years
- (C) Not less than 7 years
- (D) Not less than 3 years
17.Which of the following best describes the conduct made punishable by Section 327, IPC?
- (A) Voluntarily causing hurt for the purpose of extorting property or of constraining the sufferer to do something illegal or which may facilitate an offence.
- (B) Negligently causing hurt that results in financial loss to the sufferer.
- (C) Threatening to cause hurt without actually causing any injury.
- (D) Causing hurt during the lawful exercise of a right, without any ulterior purpose.
18.Which of the following is NOT required to establish an offence under Section 328 IPC?
- (A) Administration or causing to be taken of a poison, stupefying, intoxicating or unwholesome drug, or other thing
- (B) An intention to cause hurt, or to commit/facilitate an offence, or knowledge that hurt is likely
- (C) That actual hurt has resulted
- (D) That the offender be punishable with imprisonment up to ten years and fine
19.Which of the following is NOT covered as a purpose punishable under Section 330 IPC?
- (A) Extorting from the sufferer any confession
- (B) Constraining the sufferer to cause restoration of property
- (C) To satisfy any claim or demand by causing hurt
- (D) Causing hurt purely out of revenge or private spite with no intention to extort confession, obtain information, restore property, or satisfy a claim
20.Which statement correctly describes the scope of Section 332 IPC?
- (A) It applies only when the hurt is caused to a person who is a public servant; mere intention to deter a public servant without hurting a public servant does not fall under Section 332.
- (B) It applies when a civilian is hurt with the purpose of deterring a public servant from duty.
- (C) It applies to any hurt caused to any person if it affects a public servant's ability to do his duty.
- (D) It applies even if the hurt is accidental but results in deterrence of a public servant.
21.Which statement correctly describes the permissible intention of the accused under Section 334 IPC?
- (A) The accused must not intend to hurt anyone at all
- (B) The accused may intend to hurt the person who gave the provocation but must not intend or know himself likely to hurt others
- (C) The accused may intend to hurt any number of people provided the provocation was grave
- (D) The accused's intention is irrelevant so long as the provocation was sudden
22.Does Section 336 apply where the act endangers only the personal safety of the actor himself and not that of others?
- (A) No, it applies to the personal safety of others (not the actor)
- (B) Yes, 'others' includes the actor
- (C) Yes, if the actor is negligent in public places
- (D) The provision is silent on whether 'others' includes the actor
23.Which of the following best describes 'wrongful restraint' under Section 339 IPC?
- (A) Voluntarily obstructing any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed.
- (B) Using force to confine a person within specified limits.
- (C) Forcing a person to perform an act against their will.
- (D) Preventing a person from leaving the country without lawful authority.
24.Which of the following is NOT required by the text of Section 340 IPC to constitute 'wrongful confinement'?
- (A) That the person be wrongfully restrained by another.
- (B) That the person be prevented from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits.
- (C) That there be an act of restraint.
- (D) That the confinement take place within a legally recognised enclosure such as a locked building or room.
25.Under Section 343 IPC, wrongful confinement must be for what minimum duration to attract the offence?
- (A) Less than one day
- (B) Two days
- (C) Three days or more
- (D) Seven days
26.Which of the following is an essential element of the offence under Section 345 IPC?
- (A) Keeping any person in wrongful confinement while knowing that a writ for that person’s liberation has been duly issued
- (B) Keeping any person in confinement regardless of whether a writ for liberation has been issued
- (C) Issuing a writ for the liberation of a person without judicial authority
- (D) Failing to apply for a writ of liberation on behalf of a confined person
27.Which of the following is an essential element of the offence under Section 347 IPC?
- (A) Wrongful confinement for the purpose of extorting property or valuable security
- (B) Wrongful confinement to insult the modesty of a person
- (C) Lawful confinement under legal authority
- (D) Confinement only when it causes grievous bodily harm
28.According to Section 349 IPC, which of the following best describes when a person is said to 'use force' upon another?
- (A) When he causes motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion to that other.
- (B) When he causes alarm, fear or intimidation to that other.
- (C) When he causes bodily injury to that other.
- (D) When he compels the other to act against their will without physical movement.
29.If a person intends or knows it to be likely that force will cause injury, fear or annoyance, but no injury, fear or annoyance actually occurs, is the conduct 'criminal force' under Section 350?
- (A) No — the physical or mental consequence must actually occur
- (B) Yes — but only when the force was used to commit an offence
- (C) Yes — the provision criminalises intent or knowledge that the force is likely to cause injury, fear or annoyance irrespective of the actual result
- (D) No — not unless the victim files a complaint
30.If the provocation was grave but not sudden (i.e. grave but lacking suddenness), is the accused liable under Section 352?
- (A) Yes — the exception requires the provocation to be both grave and sudden, so lacking suddenness means S.352 applies.
- (B) No — grave provocation alone is sufficient to exclude liability.
- (C) Only if the accused pays a fine first.
- (D) Only if the provocation was by more than one person.
31.Which of the following correctly states the sentencing limit under Section 354 IPC?
- (A) Imprisonment of either description for not less than one year and which may extend to five years, and also liable to fine
- (B) Imprisonment up to five years with no minimum term, and fine optional
- (C) Only a fine is prescribed; imprisonment is discretionary
- (D) Death or life imprisonment may be imposed in extreme cases
32.Which description correctly identifies the class of persons criminalised by the opening words of Section 354B IPC?
- (A) Any man who assaults or uses criminal force on a woman with the intention of disrobing her or compelling her to be naked.
- (B) Any person (male or female) who assaults or uses criminal force to disrobe a woman.
- (C) Only public servants who commit such acts in the course of duty.
- (D) Only men above a specified age (e.g., 18 years) are targeted by the section.
33.What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed under Section 355 IPC?
- (A) Six months
- (B) One year
- (C) Two years
- (D) Five years
34.What is the maximum punishment prescribed by Section 357 IPC?
- (A) Imprisonment up to two years or fine up to five thousand rupees, or both.
- (B) Imprisonment for life or fine of any amount.
- (C) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or both.
- (D) Only a fine not exceeding one thousand rupees.
35.According to Section 359 of the Indian Penal Code, how many kinds of kidnapping are recognised?
- (A) One
- (B) Two
- (C) Three
- (D) Four
36.Under Section 361 IPC, up to what age is a male considered a 'minor' for the offence of kidnapping from lawful guardianship?
- (A) Under sixteen years of age
- (B) Under eighteen years of age
- (C) Under twenty-one years of age
- (D) Under fourteen years of age
37.Under Section 363 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, which act is expressly criminalised?
- (A) Kidnapping any person from India or from lawful guardianship
- (B) Taking property by force from a person
- (C) Voluntarily causing hurt to a guardian
- (D) Wrongful confinement of a person in a house
38.Which of the following best describes the act prohibited by Section 364 IPC?
- (A) Kidnapping or abducting any person in order that such person may be murdered or may be so disposed of as to be put in danger of being murdered.
- (B) Kidnapping any person for the purpose of demanding ransom.
- (C) Forcibly confining a person without the intention of harming them.
- (D) Taking away movable property by force or threat.
39.What specific mens rea (mental element) does Section 365 of the IPC require for the offence described?
- (A) Intent to cause the person to be secretly and wrongfully confined
- (B) Intent to cause the death of the person
- (C) Intent to take the person's property
- (D) Intent to cause public alarm
40.Which of the following correctly describes the scope of the phrase 'marry any person' in Section 366 IPC?
- (A) It covers compulsion to marry any person — including the abductor or any other person — because the text refers to 'marry any person'.
- (B) It applies only where the intended spouse is a person other than the abductor.
- (C) It requires that the intended spouse be a stranger unknown to the victim.
- (D) It applies only when the purpose of abduction is to secure illicit intercourse by marriage.
41.Does Section 366B IPC apply when a girl under twenty-one is brought from one Indian State (other than Jammu and Kashmir) into another Indian State?
- (A) Yes — it applies to importation from any Indian State
- (B) No — it applies only to importation from countries outside India or from the State of Jammu and Kashmir
- (C) Yes — but only if she was coerced during transit
- (D) No — because the provision applies only to girls under eighteen
42.When determining punishment under Section 368, whose intention or purpose is relevant?
- (A) The concealer's own intention, knowledge, or purpose for concealing or detaining the person.
- (B) The original abductor's intention or purpose at the time of the abduction.
- (C) Whichever intention (concealer's or abductor's) would attract the harsher penalty.
- (D) No punishment applies if the concealer's purpose differs from the abductor's purpose.
43.Which of the following scenarios is explicitly prescribed in the provision as attracting imprisonment for life "which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s natural life" on conviction?
- (A) Offence of trafficking (general) — minimum seven years up to ten years
- (B) Person convicted of trafficking of a minor on more than one occasion
- (C) Where the offence involves the trafficking of more than one minor (minimum fourteen years)
- (D) Where the offence involves the trafficking of more than one person (minimum ten years)
44.Is it permissible under Section 371 to sentence a convict both to imprisonment for life and simultaneously to imprisonment "of either description for a term not exceeding ten years"?
- (A) No — the provision offers life imprisonment or imprisonment up to ten years (they are alternatives)
- (B) Yes — the court may impose both consecutive terms together
- (C) Yes — the provision expressly requires both punishments to be imposed together
- (D) No — only a fine is mandatory and imprisonment is optional
45.Section 374 of the Indian Penal Code defines which offence?
- (A) Unlawfully compelling any person to labour against that person's will
- (B) Kidnapping for ransom
- (C) Forced marriage
- (D) Cheating by personation
46.Under the proviso exempting marital intercourse, the phrase "the wife not being under fifteen years of age" means the marital exemption applies if the wife is at least what age?
- (A) 14 years
- (B) 15 years
- (C) 16 years
- (D) 18 years
47.If a woman dies during the commission of an offence punishable under section 376(1) or (2) but the death resulted from an unrelated intervening illness and not from any injury inflicted by the offender in the course of the commission, does Section 376A apply?
- (A) Yes — Section 376A applies because death occurred during the commission of the offence.
- (B) Yes — Section 376A always applies when death occurs during any offence; causation need not be proved.
- (C) No — Section 376A requires that an injury inflicted in the course of such commission causes the death; if death is not caused by such injury, Section 376A does not apply.
- (D) No — Section 376A applies only when the offender had intent to cause death.
48.Must the separation be under a formal court decree for Section 376B to apply?
- (A) Yes — only separation under a decree is covered
- (B) No — the provision covers separation 'whether under a decree of separation or otherwise'
- (C) Yes — but only if the decree is from a family court
- (D) No — the provision applies only to legal separations and not informal ones
49.Which of the following accurately states the maximum sentence allowed under Section 376D?
- (A) Death penalty
- (B) Life imprisonment defined as a fixed term of 20 years
- (C) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years
- (D) Imprisonment which may extend to life, meaning imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s natural life, and with fine
50.Which statement best describes the sentencing alternatives in Section 376DB?
- (A) The court must impose both life imprisonment and the death penalty together
- (B) The court may sentence imprisonment for the remainder of the person’s natural life with fine, or may sentence death
- (C) The court may impose life imprisonment but it is defined as 20 years followed by fine or death
- (D) The court must impose only a fine in addition to no imprisonment
Answer key
1. D2. C3. C4. D5. B6. C7. C8. C9. C10. B11. A12. D13. A14. A15. A16. B17. A18. C19. D20. A21. B22. A23. A24. D25. C26. A27. A28. A29. C30. A31. A32. A33. C34. C35. B36. A37. A38. A39. A40. A41. B42. A43. B44. A45. A46. B47. C48. B49. D50. B
Explanations
- 1. (D) Section 299 lists three mental states: intention to cause death, intention to cause such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, and knowledge that the act is likely to cause death. Simple negligence or carelessness is not included among these grounds in the provision.
- 2. (C) Section 301 states that when an act intended or known to be likely to cause death results in the death of a person whose death was neither intended nor foreseen, the culpable homicide is of the description as it would have been had the intended/foreseen person died. Therefore the classification follows A, the intended/foreseen victim.
- 3. (C) Section 303 specifically says "being under sentence of imprisonment for life" as the condition. It therefore applies only to those under a life sentence, not to persons serving other (e.g. ten-year) sentences.
- 4. (D) Section 304A refers to ‘doing any rash or negligent act,’ so the provision, as worded, covers doing a rash or negligent act. It does not, in its wording, refer to omissions.
- 5. (B) The provision covers persons under eighteen and states that whoever abets the commission of such suicide "shall be punished with death or imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years, and shall also be liable to fine."
- 6. (C) The provision covers whoever does any act "with such intention or knowledge, and under such circumstances that, if he by that act caused death, he would be guilty of murder," which shows actual death need not occur for the section to apply. The liability is based on the intention/knowledge and circumstances, not on death having been caused.
- 7. (C) Section 309 provides punishment by "simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year", so the maximum term is one year.
- 8. (C) The provision expressly states the person 'shall also be liable to fine,' so in addition to imprisonment the person is liable to a fine.
- 9. (C) The provision explicitly says "whether the woman is quick with child or not," meaning the offence applies regardless of whether the woman is quick with child. It therefore does not depend on quickening.
- 10. (B) The section states the offender "shall... be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, or with fine, or with both." Thus the maximum term specified is ten years, with a fine or both as alternatives.
- 11. (A) The provision begins: "Whoever being the father or mother of a child under the age of twelve years, or having the care of such child, shall expose or leave such child..." Therefore it covers the father, mother, or any person having the care of the child.
- 12. (D) The provision states that whoever causes bodily pain, disease or infirmity is said to cause hurt; it lists the physical consequences but does not make intention or motive a part of the definition.
- 13. (A) Section 321 states the act must be done "with the intention of thereby causing hurt... or with the knowledge that he is likely thereby to cause hurt" and additionally "and does thereby cause hurt". Thus intention or knowledge plus actual causing of hurt are required.
- 14. (A) The provision opens with "Whoever... voluntarily causes hurt," which directly defines the offence as voluntarily causing hurt. The other options are not described in the text of Section 323.
- 15. (A) Section 325 states that whoever voluntarily causes grievous hurt "shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine." Thus the correct punishment is imprisonment (either description) up to seven years plus liability to fine.
- 16. (B) Section 326A provides punishment "for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to imprisonment for life." Therefore the minimum term is ten years.
- 17. (A) Section 327 penalises whoever "voluntarily causes hurt, for the purpose of extorting... any property... or of constraining the sufferer... to do anything which is illegal or which may facilitate the commission of an offence." The offence requires voluntary hurt committed with those specified purposes.
- 18. (C) Section 328 penalises the act of administering such substances with the specified mental states; it does not condition liability on actual hurt having occurred. The provision prescribes punishment (up to ten years and fine) once those elements are present.
- 19. (D) Section 330 specifies punishable purposes — extorting confession or information, constraining restoration of property or satisfying a claim. Causing hurt purely out of revenge or private spite, without those purposes, is not within the listed purposes in the provision.
- 20. (A) Section 332 requires that the hurt be caused to 'any person being a public servant' and the offence covers voluntary hurt to such a public servant in specified circumstances. Therefore merely intending to deter a public servant without hurting a public servant (i.e. victim not a public servant) is not covered by this section.
- 21. (B) Section 334 requires that the offender "neither intends nor knows himself to be likely to cause hurt to any person other than the person who gave the provocation," which permits intention to hurt the provoker but bars intention or knowledge of likely hurt to others.
- 22. (A) Section 336 refers to acts endangering 'human life or the personal safety of others.' The use of the word 'others' indicates the provision is concerned with endangering persons other than the actor, not the actor's own safety.
- 23. (A) Section 339 defines wrongful restraint as whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed. The other options describe different acts not stated in this provision.
- 24. (D) The provision requires wrongful restraint that prevents proceeding 'beyond certain circumscribing limits,' but it does not limit those limits to a legally recognised enclosure. The text speaks of 'certain circumscribing limits' generally, so confinement need not be within a building or room.
- 25. (C) The provision states: 'Whoever wrongfully confines any person for three days or more, shall be punished...'. Therefore the minimum duration specified is three days or more.
- 26. (A) Section 345 makes it an offence for whoever keeps any person in wrongful confinement knowing that a writ for the liberation of that person has been duly issued. The knowledge of a duly issued writ plus wrongful confinement are required elements.
- 27. (A) Section 347 punishes whoever 'wrongfully confines any person for the purpose of extorting ... any property or valuable security' or for constraining to do anything illegal or to give information facilitating an offence. Thus the essential element is wrongful confinement coupled with one of the specified purposes.
- 28. (A) The provision defines use of force as causing motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion to that other. Other consequences like fear or injury are not part of the statutory definition given in Section 349.
- 29. (C) Section 350 includes anyone 'intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance.' The provision focuses on the actor's intent or knowledge, so the absence of the actual result does not negate criminal force.
- 30. (A) The provision excepts only assaults "on grave and sudden provocation given by that person." Both qualities are required for the exception, so if the provocation is not sudden (even if grave) the exception does not apply and S.352 liability remains.
- 31. (A) The provision specifies punishment as 'imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than one year but which may extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine.' Thus the correct statement is the mandatory minimum of one year, maximum five years, and liability to fine.
- 32. (A) The provision begins with 'Any man who assaults or uses criminal force to any woman ...' therefore the wording in the section criminalises 'any man' committing the described acts. It does not, in its text, say 'any person' or limit by office or age.
- 33. (C) The text of Section 355 states punishment with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both. Hence the maximum imprisonment specified is two years.
- 34. (C) The provision states the offender "shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both." Therefore the maximum specified is one year imprisonment and fine up to ₹1,000, or both.
- 35. (B) Section 359 states: "Kidnapping is of two kinds: kidnapping from India, and kidnapping from lawful guardianship." This explicitly recognises two kinds of kidnapping.
- 36. (A) The provision states: "any minor under sixteen years of age if a male..." which makes the applicable age for a male minor under sixteen years. Thus a male is covered only if he is under sixteen years of age.
- 37. (A) Section 363 states: 'Whoever kidnaps any person from India or from lawful guardianship...' which expressly criminalises kidnapping in those circumstances. The other options describe different offences not mentioned in this provision.
- 38. (A) Section 364 expressly criminalises 'kidnaps or abducts any person in order that such person may be murdered or may be so disposed of as to be put in danger of being murdered.' The provision therefore targets kidnapping/abduction with the purpose of murder or exposing the person to danger of being murdered.
- 39. (A) Section 365 states the offence is committed by whoever kidnaps or abducts any person "with intent to cause that person to be secretly and wrongfully confined." Thus the required mens rea is the intent to cause secret and wrongful confinement. The provision does not mention intent to kill, steal, or cause public alarm.
- 40. (A) The provision criminalises kidnapping or abducting a woman with intent that she may be compelled to 'marry any person against her will.' The phrase 'any person' in the text imposes no textual restriction to exclude the abductor or to limit the identity of the person to a stranger.
- 41. (B) The provision criminalises importing "from any country outside India or from the State of Jammu and Kashmir" any girl under twenty-one; it does not refer to importation from other Indian States. Hence importation from another Indian State (other than Jammu and Kashmir) is not covered by the text.
- 42. (A) Section 368 prescribes punishment 'in the same manner as if he had kidnapped or abducted such person with the same intention or knowledge, or for the same purpose as that with or for which he conceals or detains such person.' Thus the concealer's own intention/knowledge/purpose is the basis for punishment.
- 43. (B) The provision states that if a person is convicted of trafficking of a minor on more than one occasion, such person "shall be punished with imprisonment for life, which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s natural life."
- 44. (A) The provision uses the disjunctive phrasing: "shall be punished with imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment... for a term not exceeding ten years," showing these are alternative punishments. Thus the text does not provide for imposing both imprisonment for life and the ten-year term together.
- 45. (A) The provision states: "Whoever unlawfully compels any person to labour against the will of that person..." which defines the offence as unlawful compulsion to labour against the person's will.
- 46. (B) The proviso reads "the wife not being under fifteen years of age," which means the wife is not below 15 (i.e., she is at least 15 years old) for the marital exemption to apply.
- 47. (C) Section 376A applies when the offender "in the course of such commission inflicts an injury which causes the death of the woman." Therefore if the death was not caused by an injury inflicted in the course of the commission, the section does not apply.
- 48. (B) The text expressly includes 'whether under a decree of separation or otherwise,' indicating that separation need not be by a court decree; both decree-based and other forms of separation are covered.
- 49. (D) Section 376D provides punishment that "may extend to life which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s natural life, and with fine." It does not provide the death penalty and defines life as imprisonment for the remainder of natural life.
- 50. (B) The provision provides two alternatives: punishment "with imprisonment for life, which shall mean imprisonment for the remainder of that person’s natural life, and with fine, or with death." This means the court may impose life imprisonment (as natural life) with fine, or alternatively impose death.