Practice paper — IPC Chapter 11 — False Evidence And Offences Against Public Justice

1.Which of the following is NOT an essential element of 'giving false evidence' under Section 191 IPC (as worded)?

• (A) That the person is legally bound by an oath, or by an express provision of law, to state the truth, or is bound by law to make a declaration
• (B) That the person makes a statement which is false
• (C) That the person either knows the statement is false, believes it to be false, or does not believe it to be true
• (D) That the statement must be made in a court of law

2.If a person bound to make a declaration makes a false statement which he neither knows to be false nor believes to be true (he is merely uncertain), does Section 191 treat this as giving false evidence?

• (A) Yes — because a false statement alone is sufficient under Section 191
• (B) No — absence of knowledge or belief means there is no culpable mental state under Section 191
• (C) Yes — but only if the statement was made under oath
• (D) Yes — Section 191 expressly covers statements which the maker "does not believe to be true", so uncertainty is covered

3.Is it necessary under Section 192 IPC that the false entry or circumstance actually appears in evidence during the proceeding for the offence to be made out?

• (A) Yes — the false matter must actually have been produced and admitted in evidence
• (B) Yes — except when the proceeding is before an arbitrator
• (C) Only if a public servant forms an opinion upon it
• (D) No — the section criminalises causing or making the false matter with the intention that it may appear in evidence and may cause an erroneous opinion, regardless of actual appearance

4.If false evidence is given or fabricated, but not for use in any judicial proceeding (i.e., in any other case), what maximum punishment does Section 193 IPC prescribe?

• (A) Imprisonment which may extend to seven years and fine
• (B) Life imprisonment
• (C) No offence is committed under Section 193
• (D) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, and fine

5.Which mental state falls within the scope of Section 194 when a person gives or fabricates false evidence?

• (A) Only if the person specifically intends to cause conviction (knowledge alone is insufficient).
• (B) Only if the person merely knows it is likely to cause conviction (specific intention is unnecessary).
• (C) Either if the person intends thereby to cause conviction, or knows it to be likely that he will thereby cause conviction.
• (D) Only if an actual conviction results; intention or knowledge alone are irrelevant.

6.Does Section 195 IPC apply when the false evidence is intended to cause conviction for a capital offence (punishable with death)?

• (A) Yes, it applies to any offence whether capital or non-capital.
• (B) Yes, but only if the sentence is commuted.
• (C) No, it applies only where the offence is not capital but is punishable with imprisonment for life or for seven years or upwards.
• (D) Only if the accused would otherwise have been sentenced to less than seven years.

7.What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed by Section 195A IPC for the basic offence (absent the special consequence mentioned in the proviso)?

• (A) Three years
• (B) Seven years
• (C) Life imprisonment
• (D) Two years

8.Which of the following acts is directly covered by Section 196 IPC?

• (A) Corruptly using or attempting to use as true any evidence known to be false or fabricated
• (B) Only fabricating evidence, regardless of whether it is used
• (C) Only giving false evidence in court and not attempting to use it
• (D) Negligent presentation of evidence later found to be untrue

9.What conduct does Section 197 of the Indian Penal Code punish?

• (A) Issuing or signing a certificate required by law or relating to a fact admissible in evidence, knowing or believing it is false in any material point.
• (B) Forging a certificate irrespective of whether it is admissible in evidence.
• (C) Giving false evidence in a court of law.
• (D) Refusing to issue a certificate which is required by law.

10.What is the core act made punishable by Section 198 of the IPC?

• (A) Corruptly using or attempting to use a certificate as true while knowing it to be false in a material point
• (B) Forging a certificate with intent to deceive
• (C) Giving false evidence in court
• (D) Destroying a true certificate to prevent its use

11.Which additional mental element is explicitly required by Section 198 that distinguishes it from simply any use of a certificate?

• (A) That the certificate be forged
• (B) That the use be 'corrupt' and the user know it to be false in a material point
• (C) That the user be a public servant
• (D) That the certificate be used outside judicial proceedings

12.Which statement best captures the mens rea under Section 199 IPC regarding the falsity of the statement?

• (A) It requires proof that the declarant intentionally lied (knew it was false) only.
• (B) It requires only negligence in forming the belief about the statement's truth.
• (C) It covers both deliberate falsehood (knowing or believing it false) and situations where the declarant does not even believe the statement to be true.
• (D) It eliminates the need for any belief about truth or falsity.

13.Does Section 200 IPC cover an unsuccessful attempt to use a false declaration as true?

• (A) No — only successful use is punishable
• (B) Only if the attempt results in some loss
• (C) Only if the attempt is made in a judicial proceeding
• (D) Yes — the provision expressly punishes attempts as well as use

14.A person destroys a document but genuinely has no knowledge or reason to believe that any offence had been committed. Is the act punishable under Section 201 as quoted?

• (A) Yes — destruction of evidence alone is sufficient
• (B) No — Section 201 requires knowledge or reason to believe that an offence has been committed
• (C) Yes, if destruction later prevents detection of an offence
• (D) No, unless the person also lies about the offence

15.Does Section 202 IPC require actual knowledge that an offence has been committed in order to convict?

• (A) Yes — only actual knowledge suffices
• (B) No — either knowing or having reason to believe will suffice
• (C) No — only having reason to believe suffices, not actual knowledge
• (D) Yes — both actual knowledge and reason to believe must be proved

16.Which mental state regarding the commission of an offence is required by Section 203 IPC for liability?

• (A) Intent to cause harm
• (B) Negligence
• (C) Knowing or having reason to believe that an offence has been committed
• (D) Recklessness

17.What is the maximum term of imprisonment that Section 204 IPC prescribes?

• (A) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months
• (B) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year
• (C) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years
• (D) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years

18.Under Section 205 IPC, what is the maximum term of imprisonment for falsely personating another in relation to a suit or criminal prosecution?

• (A) One year
• (B) Three years
• (C) Seven years
• (D) Ten years

19.Which of the following actions is expressly made an offence by Section 206 of the Indian Penal Code?

• (A) Fraudulently removing property with intent to prevent it from being taken as forfeiture or in execution.
• (B) Accidentally misplacing property later recovered before any seizure.
• (C) Lawfully selling property when no sentence or decree is pending.
• (D) Giving property as a bona fide gift when no court proceeding is contemplated.

20.Which statement correctly describes the types of authorities referred to in Section 206 regarding seizures under sentence and seizures in execution of decrees?

• (A) The provision applies only to sentences pronounced by Courts of Justice and not to any other authority.
• (B) The provision allows preventing seizure under any order by any authority without distinction.
• (C) The provision covers prevention of seizure under a sentence by a Court of Justice or 'other competent authority', but when referring to seizure in execution it specifically speaks of a decree or order made by a Court of Justice in a civil suit.
• (D) The provision requires that both a sentence and a civil decree must exist simultaneously for it to apply.

21.Which of the following correctly distinguishes the mens rea requirements under Section 207 IPC for the two alternate acts described?

• (A) Both accepting/claiming and practising deception require only knowledge that one has no right to the property
• (B) Accepting/claiming requires knowing he has no right, while practising deception requires intending to prevent the property from being seized
• (C) Both accepting/claiming and practising deception require only the intention to prevent seizure
• (D) Neither knowledge nor intention are required; only the act of claiming or deceiving matters

22.Where a decree has already been satisfied, can a person be punished under Section 208 if he fraudulently causes or suffers the decree to be executed against him again?

• (A) No; Section 208 does not refer to execution after satisfaction.
• (B) Only if the execution causes financial loss to the decree-holder.
• (C) Only if the decree was for a sum not due.
• (D) Yes; Section 208 penalises fraudulently causing or suffering a decree to be executed after it has been falsified, or for anything in respect of which it has been satisfied.

23.If a person makes a claim in Court that is true, but does so with the intent to injure or annoy another person, does Section 209 IPC apply?

• (A) Yes — intent to injure or annoy is sufficient even if the claim is true
• (B) Yes — if the claim was presented fraudulently
• (C) No — Section 209 applies only to claims which the maker knows to be false
• (D) Only if the person also acted dishonestly

24.Does Section 210 cover causing execution of a decree against a person after the decree has been satisfied?

• (A) No, it only covers obtaining decrees, not execution
• (B) Yes, but only if the act is done fraudulently
• (C) Yes, in all cases whether fraudulent or not
• (D) No, execution matters are purely civil

25.Which mental elements must be present for an offence under Section 211, IPC to be made out?

• (A) Only intent to cause injury to the person is required
• (B) Only knowledge that there is no just or lawful ground is required
• (C) Both intent to cause injury and knowledge that there is no just or lawful ground are required
• (D) Either intent to injure or knowledge of no lawful ground is sufficient

26.Which mental state regarding the identity of the harboured person is sufficient under Section 212?

• (A) Only actual knowledge that the person is the offender.
• (B) Either actual knowledge or having reason to believe that the person is the offender.
• (C) Only negligence about whether the person is an offender.
• (D) Only a suspicion without any reasonable grounds.

27.Which of the following acts is specifically criminalized by Section 213 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

• (A) Accepting gratification in consideration of concealing an offence or screening a person from legal punishment
• (B) Accepting gratification for prosecuting an offender in court
• (C) Accepting a lawful salary for performing official duties
• (D) Accepting a gift after an accused is acquitted

28.Which of the following acts is an offence under Section 214 of the IPC?

• (A) Giving gratification to any person in consideration of that person’s concealing an offence
• (B) Receiving gratification for reporting an offence to the police
• (C) Giving gratification to a public servant for performing his lawful duty
• (D) Restoring property to its rightful owner without any condition

29.Who does Section 214 primarily make liable under its language?

• (A) The person who conceals the offence
• (B) The person who gives or offers to give gratification or causes restoration
• (C) The person who receives gratification or has property restored
• (D) The person against whom proceedings are not taken

30.If the person who took gratification succeeds in causing the offender to be apprehended but the offender is not convicted, does Section 215 IPC's exemption apply?

• (A) Yes — apprehension alone is sufficient for the exemption.
• (B) No — the exemption requires that the offender be apprehended and convicted.
• (C) Yes — either apprehension or conviction will suffice for the exemption.
• (D) It depends on the value of the gratification taken.

31.P was charged but released on bail and therefore not in custody. Later P fails to appear and is at large. Q, knowing this fact, harbours P. Does Section 216 apply to Q by reason of an "escape from custody"?

• (A) Yes — being charged is sufficient ground under Section 216 whether or not custody existed.
• (B) No — Section 216's escape limb applies only when the person was in lawful custody and escaped from that custody.
• (C) Yes — harbouring any charged person at large is covered regardless of custody status.
• (D) No — Section 216 never applies to charged persons, only to convicted persons.

32.If a person harbours individuals whom they have reason to believe are about to commit robbery, but the harbouring is intended to facilitate a different crime (not the robbery/dacoity), does Section 216A apply?

• (A) Yes, any facilitation of wrongdoing while harbouring makes the person liable
• (B) Yes, if the other crime is as serious as robbery or dacoity
• (C) No, because the statute requires the intention to facilitate the commission of such robbery or dacoity or to screen them from punishment
• (D) No, unless the harbourer also commits the other crime

33.Under Section 217 IPC, who is the person capable of committing the offence described?

• (A) Any person
• (B) Any citizen
• (C) A public servant
• (D) Any office-bearer

34.Under Section 218 IPC, what is the maximum punishment for a public servant who frames an incorrect record as described in the provision?

• (A) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one year
• (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both
• (C) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years
• (D) Life imprisonment

35.Which of the following is a necessary factual requirement for Section 218 to apply?

• (A) The accused must be a public servant who, as such public servant, is charged with the preparation of the record or writing
• (B) It applies to any public servant who later alters or frames a record, whether or not he was charged with its preparation
• (C) It applies only where property has in fact been saved from forfeiture
• (D) It applies only where the public has suffered actual loss or injury

36.What is the maximum punishment stated in Section 219 IPC?

• (A) Imprisonment for life
• (B) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years, or fine, or both
• (C) Imprisonment of either description with a mandatory fine
• (D) Death penalty

37.An officer corruptly commits a person for trial but honestly believes his act is lawful. Is Section 220 IPC attracted?

• (A) Yes — corrupt motive alone is sufficient for Section 220
• (B) Yes — if the act was ordered by a superior officer
• (C) Only if the confinement causes bodily harm
• (D) No — the section requires that he know he is acting contrary to law

38.Does Section 221 apply to a private citizen who assists a detained person to escape from custody?

• (A) Yes — it applies to any person who facilitates escape
• (B) Yes — if the private citizen had some informal duty to apprehend
• (C) Yes — but only where the private citizen was officially deputed beforehand
• (D) No — Section 221 is confined to public servants who are legally bound as such to apprehend or to keep in confinement

39.A public servant, who is legally bound to keep a lawfully committed person in custody, assists that person in an attempted escape but the escape fails. Under Section 222 IPC as worded, is the public servant covered?

• (A) No — the section applies only if the escape is completed
• (B) Yes — the section covers "aids such person in escaping or attempting to escape"
• (C) Only if the person was under sentence of a Court of Justice (not merely lawfully committed)
• (D) Only if the attempt reached a stage where the person was outside the prison premises

40.What is the maximum punishment provided by Section 223 IPC?

• (A) Simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or fine, or both
• (B) Rigorous imprisonment for life
• (C) Fine only
• (D) Imprisonment up to six months and fine

41.What is the maximum punishment prescribed by Section 224 IPC?

• (A) Imprisonment for life.
• (B) Fine only.
• (C) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
• (D) Imprisonment up to seven years.

42.Which of the following acts is explicitly made an offence by Section 225 IPC?

• (A) Intentionally offering resistance or illegal obstruction to the lawful apprehension of any other person for an offence, or rescuing/attempting to rescue such a person from lawful custody
• (B) Resisting one's own lawful arrest by a police officer
• (C) Obstructing a public servant in the discharge of his public functions
• (D) Failing to appear before a court when summoned

43.Who is the actor liable under Section 225A of the IPC?

• (A) Any person who witnesses an escape
• (B) Any public servant, whether or not under a legal duty to apprehend
• (C) A public servant legally bound as such public servant to apprehend or to keep in confinement
• (D) A private security guard employed by a citizen

44.Which interpretation of the phrase "legally bound as such public servant to apprehend, or to keep in confinement" best aligns with Section 225A?

• (A) It requires an existing legal duty arising from law or office; mere willingness or permission to apprehend is insufficient
• (B) Any person who volunteers to apprehend a suspect is covered
• (C) A private citizen assisting in confinement is treated the same as a public servant under this section
• (D) Only judicial officers (magistrates/judges) are covered by the phrase

45.Which statement correctly describes when Section 225B applies in relation to other provisions or laws?

• (A) Section 225B applies in addition to any other law that also punishes the same conduct
• (B) Section 225B applies only if the other law prescribes a lighter punishment
• (C) Section 225B does not apply in any case already provided for in Section 224, Section 225, or in any other law for the time being in force
• (D) Section 225B applies only to cases falling under Sections 224 and 225

46.Under Section 227 IPC, does the provision apply where a condition of remission was breached unintentionally (without the offender's knowledge)?

• (A) Yes — any breach of condition triggers the provision irrespective of knowledge.
• (B) No — the section requires that the condition be 'knowingly' violated.
• (C) Only if the breach caused substantial harm.
• (D) Only if the breach is later declared deliberate by the court.

47.What is the maximum punishment provided by Section 228 IPC?

• (A) Simple imprisonment up to three months and fine up to Rs. 500
• (B) Simple imprisonment up to one year and fine up to Rs. 2,000
• (C) Simple imprisonment up to six months and fine up to Rs. 1,000
• (D) Simple imprisonment up to two years and fine up to Rs. 5,000

48.According to the proviso, to whom may the next-of-kin give authorisation?

• (A) Any person chosen by the next-of-kin
• (B) The chairman or the secretary of any recognised welfare institution or organisation
• (C) Any police officer or government official
• (D) Any close relative or family friend

49.Which of the following acts is directly covered by Section 229 IPC?

• (A) A person bribing a juror to influence a verdict
• (B) A witness giving false evidence in court
• (C) By personation or otherwise causing or knowingly suffering himself to be returned, empanelled or sworn as a juryman or assessor
• (D) A counsel advising a client to not appear before the court

50.Under Section 229A IPC, who commits the offence described in the provision?

• (A) A person who has been charged with an offence and released on bail or on bond without sureties, and then fails without sufficient cause to appear in Court in accordance with the terms of the bail or bond.
• (B) A person released on bail with sureties who fails to appear in Court.
• (C) A person who has been charged but appears in Court as required.
• (D) A person who has not been charged with any offence.