Practice paper — Constitution Part XVI — Special Provisions relating to Certain Classes

1.Article 330 of the Constitution of India primarily provides for which of the following?

• (A) Reservation of seats in the House of the People for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (including special provision for ST in autonomous districts of Assam).
• (B) Reservation of seats in the State Legislatures for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
• (C) Reservation of posts in government service for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
• (D) Reservation of seats in local bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities) for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

2.In Article 330, the Explanation states that the expression "population" means:

• (A) Population as ascertained at the last preceding census, whether or not its figures have been published.
• (B) Population as ascertained at the last preceding census of which the relevant figures have been published.
• (C) Population as fixed by the State government for the purpose of seat allocation.
• (D) Population as ascertained at the 2001 census (solely).

3.Which clause of Article 330 sets out the general rule that reserved seats in any State or Union territory for Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes shall "bear, as nearly as may be, the same proportion" to the total seats as their population bears to the total population?

• (A) Clause (1)
• (B) Clause (3)
• (C) Clause (2)
• (D) The Explanation

4.Until the relevant figures for the first census taken after the year 2026 have been published, the Explanation to Article 330 directs that the reference to the "last preceding census" shall be construed as a reference to which census?

• (A) 2001 census
• (B) 2011 census
• (C) 1991 census
• (D) The most recent state census

5.Who is empowered by Article 331 to nominate members of the Anglo-Indian community to the House of the People?

• (A) The President of India
• (B) The Prime Minister of India
• (C) The Speaker of the House of the People
• (D) The Election Commission of India

6.What is the effect of the opening phrase "Notwithstanding anything in article 81" in Article 331?

• (A) It makes Article 81 the primary authority overruling Article 331
• (B) It requires the President to follow Article 81 before nominating
• (C) It allows the President to nominate Anglo-Indian members despite any provision of Article 81
• (D) It suspends Article 331 whenever Article 81 is applied

7.Which of the following best describes the nature of the President's power under Article 331?

• (A) A mandatory duty to nominate two Anglo-Indian members whenever vacancies arise
• (B) A power to nominate an unlimited number of Anglo-Indian members
• (C) A power to nominate up to two members only after a resolution of Parliament
• (D) A discretionary power to nominate up to two Anglo-Indian members if the President is of the opinion they are not adequately represented

8.If Article 81 specifies the composition or total number of members of the House of the People, does Article 331 permit the President to nominate up to two Anglo-Indian members in addition to that composition?

• (A) No — Article 81's composition cannot be altered by Article 331
• (B) Yes — Article 331 permits nomination irrespective of Article 81
• (C) Yes, but only if Parliament passes a special resolution
• (D) Only during a national emergency can Article 331 augment Article 81

9.According to Article 332(5), constituencies for seats reserved for an autonomous district of Assam must:

• (A) Include areas from adjacent districts to balance population.
• (B) Be determined by the President of India based on administrative convenience.
• (C) Not comprise any area outside that autonomous district.
• (D) Be merged with neighbouring autonomous districts when necessary.

10.If the Scheduled Tribe population in a State or part of a State is 30% and the Legislative Assembly has 100 seats, Article 332(3) requires approximately how many seats be reserved for the Scheduled Tribes?

• (A) 3 seats
• (B) 30 seats
• (C) 33 seats
• (D) 70 seats

11.What does the proviso to Article 332(6) require regarding the Bodoland Territorial Areas District (BTAD) constituencies for Assam Assembly elections?

• (A) The representation of Scheduled Tribes and non-Scheduled Tribes in the BTAD constituencies existing prior to constitution of BTAD shall be maintained.
• (B) All BTAD constituencies must be converted to unreserved seats irrespective of prior status.
• (C) Only Scheduled Tribe candidates may contest from any constituency in BTAD, regardless of prior composition.
• (D) BTAD constituencies may be redrawn to alter ST and non-ST representation as desired.

12.Who is authorized by Article 333 to nominate a member to the State Legislative Assembly for the Anglo-Indian community?

• (A) The Governor of a State
• (B) The President of India
• (C) The Chief Minister of the State
• (D) The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

13.According to Article 333, who may be nominated to the Legislative Assembly under this provision?

• (A) Any Indian citizen
• (B) A member of the Scheduled Castes
• (C) One member of the Anglo-Indian community
• (D) A representative of religious minorities

14.How many Anglo-Indian members may the Governor nominate to a State Legislative Assembly under Article 333?

• (A) Yes — the Governor may nominate up to two members
• (B) Only one member
• (C) As many members as are deemed necessary
• (D) One nominated member for each large district

15.What is the effect of the opening phrase 'Notwithstanding anything in article 170' in Article 333?

• (A) It permits the Governor to nominate despite anything in Article 170 that might conflict with that nomination power
• (B) It declares Article 170 wholly inapplicable to State matters
• (C) It requires the Governor to act only in accordance with Article 170
• (D) It makes nomination possible only with Assembly procedures under Article 170

16.According to Article 334, from the commencement of the Constitution, after how long will the provisions relating to clause (a) and clause (b) respectively cease to have effect?

• (A) Seventy years for clause (a) and eighty years for clause (b).
• (B) Eighty years for clause (a) and seventy years for clause (b).
• (C) Eighty years for both clause (a) and clause (b).
• (D) Seventy years for both clause (a) and clause (b).

17.Which legislative bodies are directly mentioned in Article 334 as being affected by the cessation of reservation and nominated representation?

• (A) Both Houses of Parliament and both Houses of State Legislatures including Legislative Councils.
• (B) Only the Legislative Councils of States.
• (C) The House of the People (Lok Sabha) and the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
• (D) Panchayats and Municipalities.

18.If the specified period in Article 334 expires, when does the Article affect the representation in the then existing House or Assembly?

• (A) Representation ends immediately upon expiry of the specified period.
• (B) Representation continues until Parliament passes a law to change it.
• (C) Representation continues until the next general election following expiry.
• (D) Nothing in this article shall affect any representation in the House of the People or in the Legislative Assembly of a State until the dissolution of the then existing House or Assembly.

19.What is the primary directive of Article 335 regarding members of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?

• (A) To ensure members of SC/ST are excluded from appointments to maintain standards.
• (B) Their claims shall be taken into consideration in making appointments to services and posts, consistently with maintenance of efficiency of administration.
• (C) To guarantee that a fixed percentage of all posts is reserved for SC/ST members.
• (D) To restrict SC/ST members to certain categories of services and posts only.

20.According to Article 335, consideration of SC/ST claims in appointments must be done subject to which limitation?

• (A) Consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration.
• (B) Only when population proportion of SC/ST is below a threshold.
• (C) Only in services under the Union and not the States.
• (D) Strictly after matching educational qualifications of general category candidates.

21.Does Article 335 permit reservation in matters of promotion for members of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?

• (A) No — the article forbids reservation in promotion.
• (B) Yes — the proviso states nothing in the article shall prevent reservation in matters of promotion to any class or classes of services or posts.
• (C) Only if a court specifically allows it on a case-by-case basis.
• (D) Yes — but only for Union services and not for State services.

22.How should one reconcile the main clause's requirement to maintain 'efficiency of administration' with the proviso allowing relaxations and reservations for SC/ST?

• (A) The requirement of efficiency always overrides and therefore disallows any relaxation or reservation.
• (B) The proviso is limited and applies only to qualifying marks, not to promotions.
• (C) Article 335 requires consideration of SC/ST claims consistent with efficiency, but the proviso states that nothing in the article shall prevent making provisions for relaxation or reservation (including promotions).
• (D) The article mandates that efficiency be disregarded whenever relaxations for SC/ST are made.

23.Which Union services are specially mentioned in Article 336 for Anglo-Indian appointments during the initial period?

• (A) Defence and police services of the Union
• (B) Railway, customs, postal and telegraph services of the Union
• (C) State public services
• (D) Local self-government bodies

24.According to Article 336, during each succeeding two-year period after the initial period, the number of posts reserved for the Anglo-Indian community in the named services shall be reduced by approximately what proportion compared with the immediately preceding period?

• (A) Twenty per cent.
• (B) Fifty per cent.
• (C) Ten per cent.
• (D) One per cent.

25.What does the proviso to clause (1) of Article 336 provide about these reservations at the end of ten years from commencement of the Constitution?

• (A) The reservations shall continue unchanged thereafter
• (B) The reservations shall become permanent
• (C) The reservations shall be transferred to state services
• (D) All such reservations shall cease

26.Which community is specifically mentioned as the beneficiary of the educational grants under Article 337?

• (A) Anglo-Indian community
• (B) Scheduled Castes
• (C) Religious minorities
• (D) Economically weaker sections

27.During the first three financial years after the commencement of the Constitution, the grants for the benefit of the Anglo-Indian community are to be the same as those made in which financial year?

• (A) The financial year ending on 31 March 1947
• (B) The financial year ending on 31 March 1948
• (C) The financial year ending on 31 March 1950
• (D) The financial year ending on 31 March 1949

28.An educational institution makes only 39% of its annual admissions available to members of communities other than the Anglo-Indian community. Under Article 337, is this institution entitled to receive a grant under the article?

• (A) Yes, because any positive percentage satisfies the requirement
• (B) Yes, if the Union or State decides otherwise
• (C) No, because at least 40% of admissions must be available to other communities
• (D) No, unless the institution is exclusively for Anglo-Indians

29.After ten years from the commencement of the Constitution, do all educational grants for the Anglo-Indian community under Article 337 automatically cease?

• (A) No — they cease only to the extent to which they are a special concession to the Anglo-Indian community
• (B) Yes — all such grants must cease entirely at the end of ten years
• (C) No — they continue unchanged unless the State chooses to reduce them
• (D) Yes — but only those granted by the Union, not the States

30.Which Commission is established by Article 338 of the Constitution of India?

• (A) The National Commission for the Scheduled Castes
• (B) The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
• (C) The National Human Rights Commission
• (D) The National Commission for Backward Classes

31.Which of the following is NOT a power expressly conferred on the Commission under clause (8) while investigating or inquiring?

• (A) Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining him on oath
• (B) Requiring the discovery and production of any document
• (C) Ordering criminal trials and sentencing offenders
• (D) Receiving evidence on affidavits

32.If a report of the Commission, or part of it, relates to a matter concerning a State Government, to whom does Article 338 require a copy of that report be forwarded?

• (A) The President of India
• (B) The Chief Minister of the State
• (C) The Speaker of the State Legislature
• (D) The Governor of the State

33.Under clause (10) of Article 338, references to the 'Scheduled Castes' shall be construed as including which of the following?

• (A) Such other backward classes as the President may, on receipt of the report of a Commission appointed under clause (1) of Article 340, by order specify, and also the Anglo-Indian community
• (B) Only the Anglo-Indian community
• (C) Other backward classes specified by Parliament, but not the Anglo-Indian community
• (D) Any community that the President may specify at any time without any report

34.According to Article 338A(2), the Commission shall consist of a Chairperson, Vice‑Chairperson and how many other Members?

• (A) One other Member
• (B) Two other Members
• (C) Three other Members
• (D) Four other Members

35.Which of the following powers does the Commission have while investigating matters under Article 338A(5)(a) or inquiring into complaints under 338A(5)(b)?

• (A) Power to review and set aside judgments of civil courts
• (B) All the powers of a civil court including summoning and enforcing attendance and requiring production of documents
• (C) Power to try criminal cases and award sentences
• (D) Power to order imprisonment without trial

36.When a report of the Commission relates to a matter with which a State Government is concerned, who is required by Article 338A(7) to cause the report to be laid before the State Legislature?

• (A) The Governor of the State
• (B) The President of India
• (C) The State Government (Chief Minister)
• (D) The Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly

37.Who has the power to appoint a Commission to report on the administration of Scheduled Areas and the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes under Article 339(1)?

• (A) The President
• (B) The Parliament
• (C) The Prime Minister
• (D) The Governor of the State

38.When is the President specifically required (shall) to appoint a Commission under Article 339(1)?

• (A) At the expiration of twenty years from the commencement of the Constitution
• (B) At the expiration of ten years from the commencement of the Constitution
• (C) Within five years of any State request
• (D) Only when Parliament passes a resolution

39.Under Article 339(2), the executive power of the Union extends to which of the following in relation to Scheduled Tribes?

• (A) Giving directions to a State as to the drawing up and execution of schemes specified in the direction to be essential for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes
• (B) Directly administering and executing welfare schemes within a State without involving the State government
• (C) Providing only financial grants to States for tribal welfare, without directions on scheme design
• (D) Making non-binding recommendations to States which the State may accept or reject

40.Does Article 339 obligate the President to appoint a Commission periodically (for example, every ten years) after the commencement of the Constitution?

• (A) Yes — it requires appointment at every ten-year interval indefinitely.
• (B) No — it requires appointment 'at the expiration of ten years from the commencement of this Constitution,' which refers to that specified ten-year point from commencement.
• (C) No — it contains no time-related obligation and leaves appointment entirely discretionary.
• (D) Yes — but only if the State governments request a fresh Commission each decade.

41.What subject-matter is the Commission appointed under Article 340 specifically tasked to investigate?

• (A) The conditions of socially and educationally backward classes
• (B) The economic policies of the Union government
• (C) Criminal justice system reforms
• (D) Efficiency of public services

42.To whom must the Commission present its report under Article 340?

• (A) Each House of Parliament directly
• (B) The Prime Minister
• (C) The President
• (D) The Chief Justice of India

43.After receiving the Commission's report, what is the President required to do under Article 340(3)?

• (A) Publish the report in the Official Gazette without further steps
• (B) Forward it only to State Governments for action
• (C) Refer it to the Supreme Court for advisory opinion
• (D) Cause a copy of the report together with a memorandum explaining the action taken thereon to be laid before each House of Parliament

44.Under Article 341(1), who issues the public notification specifying which castes, races or tribes shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes?

• (A) The President
• (B) Parliament
• (C) The Governor of the State
• (D) The Prime Minister

45.When the President issues a notification under Article 341(1) with respect to a State, what consultation is expressly required before issuing it?

• (A) No consultation is required
• (B) Consultation with the Governor of that State
• (C) Consultation with the Chief Minister of that State
• (D) Consultation with Parliament

46.A public notification under Article 341(1) specifying certain castes as Scheduled Castes for State X will have which territorial effect?

• (A) The specified castes become Scheduled Castes throughout all States and Union territories
• (B) They become Scheduled Castes only after a separate Act of Parliament
• (C) They become Scheduled Castes only where the Governor gives a separate endorsement
• (D) They are deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory only

47.Which statement correctly describes the limits on changing a notification issued under Article 341(1)?

• (A) A notification under clause (1) cannot be varied by any subsequent notification, but Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list.
• (B) A notification can be freely varied by any later presidential notification without parliamentary action.
• (C) The Governor of the State may vary the notification for his State by issuing a subsequent notification.
• (D) Once issued, Parliament has no power to amend the notified list; only the President can vary it.

48.Under Article 342, who has the authority to specify which tribes shall be deemed Scheduled Tribes for a State or Union territory?

• (A) The President, by public notification, and in the case of a State after consultation with the Governor
• (B) The Parliament, by passing a law
• (C) The State Legislature, by resolution
• (D) The Governor, acting alone

49.If the President issues a notification specifying Scheduled Tribes for a Union territory, is consultation with the Governor required under Article 342?

• (A) Yes, consultation with the Governor is required in all cases
• (B) No, consultation is required only when it is a State
• (C) Yes, but only if the Union territory has a legislative assembly
• (D) No, the President must consult Parliament instead

50.Which of the following correctly states the effect of subsequent notifications under Article 342?

• (A) A notification under clause (1) may be varied by any subsequent notification issued by the President
• (B) A notification under clause (1) may be varied by subsequent notifications only after consulting the Governor
• (C) A notification under clause (1) is subject to variation by the State Legislature
• (D) Except as Parliament may by law include or exclude tribes, a notification under clause (1) shall not be varied by any subsequent notification