Practice paper — Constitution Part XIX — Miscellaneous

1.Under Article 361(1), the President, Governor or Rajpramukh shall not be answerable to any court for which of the following?

• (A) For the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done in that exercise and performance.
• (B) For any and all acts whatsoever, including purely private acts unconnected with official duties.
• (C) Only for acts done after he has ceased to hold office.
• (D) Only for acts if those acts have not been approved by Parliament.

2.Which of the following correctly states the protection provided by Article 361(2)?

• (A) No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office.
• (B) No civil proceedings for monetary relief may ever be brought against the President or Governor even after his term.
• (C) The President can be prosecuted criminally during his term only with prior approval of Parliament.
• (D) The President and Governors are immune from all forms of investigation while in office.

3.Which statement correctly describes Article 361(3) regarding process for arrest or imprisonment?

• (A) A court may issue process for the arrest of the President during his term but cannot execute it without parliamentary approval.
• (B) Process for arrest or imprisonment may be issued only with the President's written consent.
• (C) No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President, or the Governor of a State, shall issue from any court during his term of office.
• (D) Process for arrest can be issued by a High Court but not by a lower court during the term.

4.Under Article 361(4), what is required before civil proceedings claiming relief against the President or Governor in their personal capacity may be instituted during their term?

• (A) Such civil proceedings are entirely barred during the term under all circumstances.
• (B) Proceedings may be instituted immediately if the claimant files an affidavit of urgency.
• (C) Parliamentary permission must be obtained before instituting such proceedings.
• (D) Notice in writing stating the nature of proceedings, cause of action, claimant details and relief must be delivered or left at his office and two months must expire after that notice.

5.Which of the following is a correct exception or qualification to the immunity in Article 361(1)?

• (A) The President’s conduct can never be examined by any body while he is in office.
• (B) The conduct of the President may be brought under review by any court, tribunal or body appointed or designated by either House of Parliament for investigation of a charge under Article 61.
• (C) Nothing in Article 361 prevents a person from directly suing the President in his personal capacity in any court during his term without giving notice.
• (D) Article 361(1) restricts the right of any person to bring proceedings against the Government of India.

6.Which of the following best describes the protection given by Article 361A(1)?

• (A) Complete immunity from all civil and criminal proceedings for publishing any report of parliamentary or state legislature proceedings, even if false.
• (B) Protection from civil or criminal proceedings for publication in a newspaper of a substantially true report of proceedings of Parliament or State legislatures, unless the publication is proved to have been made with malice.
• (C) Immunity only for official publications issued by the Speaker or Secretary of the House.
• (D) Protection only for publications that have been authorised in advance by the House whose proceedings are reported.

7.Does Article 361A's protection extend to publication of reports of secret sittings of either House of Parliament or a State Legislature?

• (A) No — the proviso explicitly excludes reports of proceedings of a secret sitting from the protection.
• (B) Yes — secret sittings are covered so long as the report is substantially true.
• (C) Only for State Legislatures, not for Parliament.
• (D) Only if the report is authorised by the Chair of the House.

8.How does Article 361A treat reports or matters broadcast by wireless telegraphy?

• (A) Article 361A applies only to printed newspapers and not to any form of broadcast.
• (B) Clause (2) extends the same protection to reports or matters broadcast by wireless telegraphy as part of any programme or service provided by a broadcasting station.
• (C) Broadcasts are protected only if they are simultaneous live telecasts of the House proceedings.
• (D) Broadcast protection applies only to government-run broadcasting stations, not private ones.

9.Does the definition of 'newspaper' in Article 361A include a news agency report?

• (A) Yes — any news agency report is treated as a newspaper for the purposes of Article 361A without limitation.
• (B) No — news agency reports are expressly excluded from the meaning of 'newspaper'.
• (C) Yes — but only where the news agency report contains material intended for publication in a newspaper.
• (D) Only news agency reports that are also broadcast by a broadcasting station are included.

10.Would publication of a substantially true report of proceedings of a State Legislative Council (where the State has two Houses) be protected under Article 361A?

• (A) No — Article 361A covers only the Legislative Assembly of a State and not the Legislative Council.
• (B) Only if the report is first approved by the Legislative Assembly of that State.
• (C) Yes — Article 361A covers proceedings of either House of the Legislature of a State, so it includes a Legislative Council where one exists.
• (D) Yes — but protection applies only to civil proceedings, not criminal proceedings.

11.Under Article 361B, which of the following most accurately defines a "remunerative political post"?

• (A) Any office under the Government of India or a State where salary is paid out of public revenue, or an office under a body wholly or partially owned by the Government where salary is paid by that body, except where the salary is compensatory in nature.
• (B) Any office in a political party that carries monetary benefits.
• (C) Any public office, whether paid from public revenue or private funds, including honorary posts with allowance.
• (D) Any private sector office held by a former member of a House that provides remuneration.

12.In Article 361B's Explanation, the term "House" refers to:

• (A) Either House of Parliament only.
• (B) The meaning assigned to it in clause (a) of paragraph 1 of the Tenth Schedule.
• (C) Only State Legislative Assemblies.
• (D) Any assembly or council, whether legislative or advisory.

13.A member is disqualified under paragraph 2 of the Tenth Schedule. For how long does Article 361B disqualify them from holding any remunerative political post?

• (A) For a fixed period of five years from the date of disqualification.
• (B) Until a competent court overturns the disqualification.
• (C) From the date of disqualification until the earlier of (i) the date their term as member would have expired or (ii) the date they contest an election to a House and are declared elected.
• (D) Only until the date their original membership is restored by the House.

14.If the salary for an office is paid but is "compensatory in nature," is that office treated as a "remunerative political post" under Article 361B?

• (A) Yes, all paid offices are remunerative regardless of nature of pay.
• (B) Yes, but only if the pay is from public revenue.
• (C) Only if the office is under the Government of India or a State.
• (D) No — the Explanation excludes offices where such salary or remuneration is compensatory in nature.

15.An office is under a corporation that is partially owned by the State and the corporation itself pays the salary (not from the Government's public revenue). Under Article 361B, is that office a "remunerative political post"?

• (A) Yes — clause (ii) covers offices under a body wholly or partially owned by the Government when salary is paid by such body.
• (B) No — only offices paid directly from public revenue qualify.
• (C) Only if the body is wholly owned by the Government, not merely partially owned.
• (D) Only if the salary is explicitly approved by the Government as a public disbursement.

16.What is the primary legal effect of Article 363 of the Constitution of India?

• (A) It bars the Supreme Court and other courts from jurisdiction in disputes arising out of certain pre‑Constitution treaties and similar instruments.
• (B) It vests special legislative powers in the Rulers of Indian States.
• (C) It transfers all public debts of Indian States to the Dominion Government.
• (D) It guarantees fundamental rights to Rulers of Indian States.

17.Under Article 363(2)(b), who is included in the definition of 'Ruler'?

• (A) Any head of the Government of India.
• (B) The Prince, Chief or other person recognised before commencement by His Majesty or the Government of the Dominion of India as the Ruler of any Indian State.
• (C) Any elected head of an Indian State after the commencement of the Constitution.
• (D) Only the titular monarchs recognized after the commencement of the Constitution.

18.Does Article 363 bar courts from adjudicating disputes arising out of treaties entered into after the commencement of the Constitution?

• (A) Yes, it bars courts for all treaties irrespective of date.
• (B) Yes, but only if the treaty involves a Ruler.
• (C) No — Article 363 applies only to instruments entered into or executed before the commencement of the Constitution.
• (D) Only where the treaty has been continued in operation after commencement.

19.Which of the following best states the scope of the bar in Article 363 regarding rights or liabilities?

• (A) Courts may decide disputes about rights under such instruments but not liabilities.
• (B) Only the Supreme Court is barred; other courts may decide such disputes.
• (C) The bar applies only to disputes between Rulers, not to disputes involving the Government.
• (D) Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall have jurisdiction in disputes arising out of such instruments, including disputes about rights accruing under constitutional provisions relating to them.

20.If a sanad executed before the commencement of the Constitution was between two Rulers but the Government of the Dominion of India was not a party, does Article 363 automatically bar courts from deciding disputes arising from that sanad?

• (A) No — Article 363 applies only where the Government of the Dominion of India or a predecessor Government was a party.
• (B) Yes — Article 363 bars courts for any instrument involving Rulers regardless of parties.
• (C) Yes — but only if the sanad was continued in operation after commencement.
• (D) No — Article 363 applies only to instruments executed by the Government, not to agreements between Rulers.

21.According to Article 363A clause (a), what happens to a person who, at any time before the commencement of the Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971, was recognised by the President as the Ruler of an Indian State?

• (A) They shall, on and from such commencement, cease to be recognised as such Ruler or successor.
• (B) They shall continue to be recognised as Ruler unless Parliament decides otherwise.
• (C) Their recognition is suspended until the President issues a fresh order.
• (D) Their recognition continues but privy purse payments are stopped.

22.When does Article 363A clause (b) abolish the privy purse?

• (A) Only after Parliament enacts a further law implementing the change.
• (B) On a date fixed by the President by order.
• (C) On and from the commencement of the Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971.
• (D) From the commencement of the original Constitution of India.

23.Does clause (a) of Article 363A apply to a person who is recognised by the President as a successor after the commencement of the Twenty-sixth Amendment?

• (A) Yes — it applies to any successor regardless of when recognised.
• (B) No — it applies only to persons who were recognised at any time before the commencement.
• (C) Yes, but only if the recognition is backdated by the President.
• (D) No — it applies to rulers but not to successors.

24.What is the legal effect of the opening phrase "Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution or in any law for the time being in force" in Article 363A?

• (A) It means Article 363A operates only if consistent with other Constitutional provisions.
• (B) It limits the clause to operate subject to existing laws.
• (C) It signals that the provision is subject to future laws enacted by Parliament.
• (D) It makes Article 363A operate despite any inconsistent provision of the Constitution or any existing law.

25.Which of the following is explicitly extinguished by clause (b) of Article 363A?

• (A) All titles, privileges and other non-financial honours of the Rulers.
• (B) Recognition of the person as Ruler under clause (a).
• (C) All rights, liabilities and obligations in respect of privy purse.
• (D) All property and estate rights of the Rulers.

26.Who is empowered by the Article to, by public notification, direct that a law shall not apply to a major port or aerodrome from a specified date?

• (A) The President
• (B) The Prime Minister
• (C) Parliament as a body
• (D) The Governor of the State

27.According to Article 364, which of the following correctly defines 'major port'?

• (A) Any port owned or administered by the Central Government
• (B) Any port declared to be a major port by a State law
• (C) A port declared to be a major port by or under any law made by Parliament or any existing law, and includes all areas for the time being within the limits of such port
• (D) Any port handling international shipping traffic

28.Which of the following actions is explicitly allowed under Article 364(1)(a)?

• (A) The President may amend a law made by Parliament or a State Legislature by public notification.
• (B) The President may direct that any law made by Parliament or by the Legislature of a State shall not apply to any major port or aerodrome, or shall apply subject to specified exceptions or modifications.
• (C) The President may transfer legislative power over ports from States to Parliament.
• (D) The President may suspend all laws in force in a major port indefinitely.

29.If an existing law is directed by notification to 'cease to have effect' in a major port from a specified date, what does Article 364(1)(b) say about actions done before that date?

• (A) All past actions are nullified by the cessation.
• (B) Past actions continue to be valid only if the law was made by Parliament.
• (C) Past actions are preserved only in aerodromes, not ports.
• (D) The cessation is 'except as respects things done or omitted to be done before the said date,' so prior actions/omissions remain governed by the law.

30.Which best captures the textual distinction between clauses (1)(a) and (1)(b) of Article 364?

• (A) (1)(a) applies only to aerodromes while (1)(b) applies only to ports.
• (B) (1)(a) permits suspension of constitutional provisions, and (1)(b) permits suspension of statutory provisions.
• (C) (1)(a) deals with 'any law made by Parliament or by the Legislature of a State' being made not to apply or applied with exceptions/modifications; (1)(b) deals with 'any existing law' ceasing to have effect (with a specific saving for past acts) or being applied with exceptions/modifications.
• (D) (1)(a) applies retrospectively, while (1)(b) applies prospectively from the notification date.

31.Under Article 365 of the Constitution, if a State fails to comply with directions given by the Union in the exercise of its executive power, the President may lawfully:

• (A) Dissolve the State Legislature.
• (B) Remove the Governor of the State.
• (C) Declare a National Emergency.
• (D) Hold that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.

32.Which of the following situations, as described in Article 365, triggers the President's power under that Article?

• (A) A State's failure to comply with or give effect to directions given in the exercise of the executive power of the Union under any provision of the Constitution.
• (B) A mere policy disagreement between the State Government and the Union Government.
• (C) A State Government's failure to follow an order of a High Court.
• (D) A State's temporary financial inability to meet obligations.

33.Article 365 refers to directions given in the exercise of which Union power?

• (A) Legislative power of the Union.
• (B) Executive power of the Union.
• (C) Judicial power of the Union.
• (D) Financial (taxation) power of the Union.

34.According to Article 365, the directions whose non-compliance can lead the President to act must be given under:

• (A) Any of the provisions of the Constitution.
• (B) Ordinary laws passed by the State Legislature.
• (C) International agreements to which India is a party.
• (D) Administrative instructions issued by foreign governments.

35.Which statement best describes the nature of the President's power under Article 365 as set out in the provision's wording?

• (A) The President is required to hold that the State Government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.
• (B) The President is permitted (it shall be lawful) to hold that the State Government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.
• (C) The President must immediately assume the functions of the State Government.
• (D) The President is expressly forbidden from making any such holding.

36.Under Article 366, how is the expression "agricultural income" defined?

• (A) Agricultural income as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income-tax.
• (B) Income derived only from cultivation of land.
• (C) Any income earned by persons engaged in agriculture, irrespective of source.
• (D) Income from sale of agricultural machinery.

37.Which of the following is included within the definition of "pension" in Article 366?

• (A) Only contributory pensions payable by the State.
• (B) Only retired pay and not gratuity.
• (C) Only sums payable as interest on provident funds.
• (D) Retired pay, gratuity and sums payable by way of the return of subscriptions to a provident fund.

38.Under Article 366, the term "railway" does NOT include which of the following?

• (A) A tramway that runs between two States.
• (B) A tramway wholly within a municipal area.
• (C) A tramway wholly within a municipal area and any other line wholly situate in one State declared by Parliament not to be a railway.
• (D) Any line of communication used for goods and passengers across State boundaries.

39.Which of the following does the term "debt" include according to Article 366?

• (A) Only liabilities under statutory taxation.
• (B) Liability to repay capital sums by way of annuities and any liability under any guarantee (both).
• (C) Only mortgage liabilities on land.
• (D) Only short-term commercial loans.

40.Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a tax to be described as "corporation tax" under Article 366(6)?

• (A) That it is payable by companies.
• (B) That it is not chargeable in respect of agricultural income.
• (C) That companies are authorised by applicable enactments to deduct the tax from dividends payable to individuals.
• (D) That no provision exists for taking the tax so paid into account in computing Indian income-tax of individuals receiving such dividends.

41.Under Article 367(1) of the Constitution, when does the General Clauses Act, 1897 apply to the interpretation of the Constitution?

• (A) It always applies without any modification.
• (B) It applies unless the context otherwise requires, and subject to adaptations and modifications under Article 372.
• (C) It applies only to statutes enacted after the Constitution came into force.
• (D) It applies only when Parliament specifically adopts it by law.

42.For the purposes of the Constitution, what does the term "foreign State" mean under Article 367(3)?

• (A) Only countries that do not maintain diplomatic relations with India.
• (B) States that are part of British Commonwealth but not India.
• (C) Any State other than India.
• (D) Only territories outside the Indian subcontinent.

43.Article 367(2) provides that any reference in the Constitution to Acts or laws of Parliament or of a State Legislature shall be construed as including a reference to which of the following?

• (A) Ordinances made by the President or, as the case may be, by a Governor.
• (B) Only statutes passed by the Legislature after consultation with the President.
• (C) Proclamations issued by the President under emergency powers.
• (D) Orders of the Supreme Court relating to legislative matters.

44.Which of the following correctly states the limitation on the application of the General Clauses Act, 1897 to the Constitution as per Article 367(1)?

• (A) The General Clauses Act applies only to pre-Constitution statutes and not to the Constitution.
• (B) The General Clauses Act applies only if the Supreme Court so directs.
• (C) The General Clauses Act applies only with explicit Parliamentary enactment to that effect.
• (D) The General Clauses Act applies unless the context otherwise requires and is subject to adaptations and modifications under Article 372.

45.If the President issues an order declaring a State not to be a "foreign State" under Article 367(3), which of the following is true about that declaration?

• (A) The declaration automatically overrides any law made by Parliament on the subject.
• (B) The declaration is subject to any law made by Parliament and operates only for the purposes specified in the order.
• (C) The declaration applies for all purposes of the Constitution without restriction.
• (D) The declaration can be made only if the State is geographically contiguous with India.