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Practice paper — Constitution Part XI — Relations between the Union and the States

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  1. 1.Under Article 245(1), Parliament may make laws for which territory?

    • (A) Only for the whole territory of India
    • (B) For the whole or any part of the territory of India
    • (C) Only for Union territories of India
    • (D) Only for territories outside India
  2. 2.If a law made by Parliament operates outside India, can it be held invalid solely because it has extra‑territorial operation under Article 245(2)?

    • (A) Yes, it is automatically invalid
    • (B) Yes, unless Parliament expressly provides otherwise
    • (C) No, it shall not be deemed invalid on that ground
    • (D) Only if the State legislatures object
  3. 3.The opening phrase 'Subject to the provisions of this Constitution' in Article 245(1) applies to which law‑making powers?

    • (A) Both Parliament's and State Legislatures' powers
    • (B) Only Parliament's power
    • (C) Only State Legislatures' power
    • (D) Neither; it is merely declaratory
  4. 4.Subject to clauses (1) and (2) of Article 246, who has exclusive power to make laws with respect to matters enumerated in List II (the State List)?

    • (A) Parliament
    • (B) The Legislature of any State
    • (C) Both Parliament and the State Legislatures concurrently
    • (D) The President of India
  5. 5.Article 246(1) begins with 'Notwithstanding anything in clauses (2) and (3)...'. What is the effect of that phrase as stated in the provision?

    • (A) It makes Parliament and State Legislatures share power over List I subjects equally.
    • (B) It allows State Legislatures to legislate on List I subjects if Parliament permits.
    • (C) It limits Parliament's power over List I subjects when clauses (2) and (3) apply.
    • (D) It declares Parliament's power over List I subjects to be exclusive despite clauses (2) and (3).
  6. 6.Under Article 246A, which bodies have power to make laws with respect to goods and services tax?

    • (A) Only Parliament
    • (B) Parliament and, subject to clause (2), the Legislature of every State
    • (C) Only the Legislature of every State
    • (D) Parliament and the GST Council
  7. 7.Can a State Legislature independently make a law regarding GST on a supply of goods that takes place in the course of inter-State trade or commerce?

    • (A) Yes — both Parliament and State can make such laws
    • (B) No — Parliament has exclusive power in such cases
    • (C) Yes — but only with the approval of the President of India
    • (D) Yes — if the State's law is consistent with Article 246
  8. 8.Does Article 246A enable State Legislatures to make laws with respect to goods and services tax imposed by the Union?

    • (A) No — State Legislatures can only legislate on taxes imposed by the State
    • (B) Yes — State Legislatures have power to make laws with respect to GST imposed by the Union or by such State, subject to clause (2)
    • (C) No — only Parliament can legislate on GST imposed by the Union, regardless of clause (2)
    • (D) Yes — but only after the GST Council recommends a date for effect
  9. 9.According to Article 247, for which category of laws may Parliament establish additional courts?

    • (A) Only for laws in the State List
    • (B) Only for concurrent list laws
    • (C) For laws made by Parliament and existing laws with respect to matters in the Union List
    • (D) For any law, irrespective of the legislative list it belongs to
  10. 10.The phrase 'Notwithstanding anything in this Chapter' in Article 247 means that Parliament may:

    • (A) Establish additional courts only with State legislative approval
    • (B) Create courts subject to restrictions elsewhere in the Chapter
    • (C) Only amend other provisions of the Chapter before creating courts
    • (D) Proceed to provide for additional courts despite other provisions of this Chapter that might limit that power
  11. 11.Under Article 248 of the Constitution of India, which authority has the exclusive power to make laws on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List?

    • (A) Parliament
    • (B) State Legislature
    • (C) The President
    • (D) The Supreme Court
  12. 12.If a particular tax is not mentioned in either the Concurrent List or the State List, who may, under Article 248, make a law imposing that tax?

    • (A) State Legislature
    • (B) Parliament
    • (C) Both Parliament and State Legislature
    • (D) The President
  13. 13.Which statement best captures the scope of Parliament's power under Article 248 as stated in the provision?

    • (A) Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent or State List, and this power includes making laws imposing taxes not mentioned in those Lists.
    • (B) Parliament's exclusive power extends to matters appearing in the State List.
    • (C) States share residuary legislative power equally with Parliament for matters not enumerated in the Concurrent or State List.
    • (D) Parliament's power under Article 248 is confined only to taxation matters.
  14. 14.For how long does a resolution passed under clause (1) remain in force unless sooner specified otherwise under Article 249?

    • (A) Six months
    • (B) One year
    • (C) Two years
    • (D) Indefinitely until revoked
  15. 15.While a valid Article 249 resolution is in force, Parliament is empowered to make laws for which territorial extent?

    • (A) For the whole or any part of the territory of India
    • (B) Only for the specific State(s) named in the resolution
    • (C) Only for Union Territories and not States
    • (D) Only for areas outside the territories of States
  16. 16.Under Article 250, what power is conferred on Parliament while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation?

    • (A) To delegate State List subjects to State Legislatures
    • (B) To make laws with respect to any matter in the State List for the whole or any part of the territory of India
    • (C) To legislate only on Union List subjects
    • (D) To amend the Constitution without following the amendment procedure
  17. 17.Which territorial extent does Article 250 permit Parliament to legislate for, in relation to State List matters during an Emergency?

    • (A) For the whole or any part of the territory of India
    • (B) Only for Union territories
    • (C) Only for the territories where the Emergency was proclaimed in a State
    • (D) Only for territories outside India
  18. 18.After the six‑month period following the end of a Proclamation of Emergency expires, which part of a parliamentary law made during the Emergency ceases to have effect?

    • (A) The entire law irrespective of what it contains
    • (B) Only those provisions to the extent Parliament would not have been competent to make but for the Proclamation
    • (C) Only those provisions that affect Fundamental Rights
    • (D) Only the penal provisions of the law
  19. 19.Does Article 251 bar the Legislature of a State from making any law which it has power to make under the Constitution simply because Parliament may make laws under Articles 249 and 250?

    • (A) Yes — States are completely barred from legislating on those subjects
    • (B) No — Nothing in Articles 249 and 250 shall restrict the power of a State Legislature to make laws it is competent to make
    • (C) Yes — State laws require prior approval of Parliament
    • (D) No — States can legislate only if Parliament expressly permits them
  20. 20.If a Parliamentary law under Articles 249/250 becomes ineffective or ceases to have effect, what happens to a repugnant State law under Article 251?

    • (A) The State law remains permanently inoperative
    • (B) The State law is automatically repealed
    • (C) The State law becomes void ab initio
    • (D) The State law becomes operative to the extent of the previous repugnancy once the Parliamentary law ceases to have effect
  21. 21.Under Article 252, when is it lawful for Parliament to pass an Act to regulate a matter for certain States?

    • (A) When the Legislatures of two or more States pass resolutions that it is desirable
    • (B) When the President issues a proclamation for those States
    • (C) When the Governor of any one State requests Parliament to legislate
    • (D) When the Supreme Court recommends such legislation
  22. 22.Which statement best describes how an Act passed under Article 252 may be amended or repealed?

    • (A) It may be amended or repealed by the Legislature of any State to which it applies
    • (B) It may be amended or repealed only by Parliament without any further procedure
    • (C) It may be amended or repealed by an Act of Parliament passed or adopted in like manner, and not by an Act of the State Legislature
    • (D) It cannot be amended or repealed once passed
  23. 23.After a State adopts an Act made by Parliament under Article 252, can that State later amend or repeal the Act as it applies to that State by passing its own State law?

    • (A) Yes — the State Legislature can amend it by its own Act
    • (B) No — it shall not, as respects any State to which it applies, be amended or repealed by an Act of that State's Legislature
    • (C) Yes — but only after a mandatory waiting period specified in the Constitution
    • (D) Yes — but only if Parliament first agrees to such amendment
  24. 24.According to Article 253, to which territorial extent can Parliament make law for implementing an international treaty or agreement?

    • (A) Only for the whole territory of India
    • (B) Only for union territories
    • (C) For the whole or any part of the territory of India
    • (D) Only for areas where the treaty directly applies
  25. 25.Does Article 253 permit Parliament to make laws to implement not only treaties and agreements but also "any decision made at any international conference, association or other body"?

    • (A) No — it applies only to treaties, agreements and conventions
    • (B) Yes — it explicitly includes decisions of international conferences, associations or other bodies
    • (C) Only if such decisions are converted into treaties
    • (D) Yes — but only with prior approval of State Legislatures
  26. 26.If any provision of a law made by the Legislature of a State is repugnant to a provision of a law made by Parliament on a matter in the Concurrent List, what is the legal effect under Article 254(1)?

    • (A) The law made by Parliament shall prevail and the State law shall, to the extent of the repugnancy, be void.
    • (B) The law made by the State shall prevail and the Parliamentary law shall be void.
    • (C) Both laws continue to operate concurrently despite repugnancy.
    • (D) The matter is to be referred to the President for decision before either law can operate.
  27. 27.A State law repugnant to an earlier law made by Parliament on a Concurrent List subject was reserved for the President and received his assent. Later, Parliament enacts a new law on the same matter. Which law will prevail?

    • (A) The State law will continue to prevail in that State and Parliament cannot override it.
    • (B) The law made by Parliament will prevail.
    • (C) Both laws operate side by side, with courts deciding applicability case by case.
    • (D) The President must re-consider his earlier assent before either law can operate.
  28. 28.Which of the following best describes the combined effect of Article 254(2) and its proviso regarding a State law repugnant to an earlier Parliamentary law?

    • (A) Presidential assent makes the State law immune from any future Parliamentary legislation on that subject.
    • (B) Presidential assent makes the State law applicable nationwide, beyond the State.
    • (C) Presidential assent allows the State law to prevail in that State, but Parliament can at any time enact a law to add to, amend, vary or repeal that State law.
    • (D) Once the President assents, the State law cannot be amended or repealed by anyone except the President.
  29. 29.Article 255, as quoted, applies to which of the following?

    • (A) An Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of a State and any provision in such an Act.
    • (B) Only Acts of Parliament.
    • (C) Only Acts of State Legislatures.
    • (D) Subordinate or delegated legislation made under an Act.
  30. 30.Where the recommendation or previous sanction required was that of the President, which assent will save the Act from being invalid on that ground under Article 255?

    • (A) Assent by the Governor.
    • (B) Assent by either the President or the Governor.
    • (C) Assent by the President only.
    • (D) Assent by the Rajpramukh.
  31. 31.Under Article 256, what is the primary obligation of the executive power of every State?

    • (A) To ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in that State
    • (B) To make laws for the State on subjects in the Union List
    • (C) To direct the Union on matters of central administration
    • (D) To oversee the legislative process in Parliament
  32. 32.If a State executive action appears to conflict with an existing law made by Parliament that applies in that State, Article 256 indicates the State executive must:

    • (A) Refer the matter to the Supreme Court before acting
    • (B) Exercise its executive power so as to ensure compliance with the parliamentary law
    • (C) Ignore the parliamentary law unless the Union gives a direction
    • (D) Amend the State's constitution to resolve the conflict
  33. 33.Does Article 256 allow the Union to give directions to a State for any purpose the Government of India desires?

    • (A) Yes, the Union can issue directions for any administrative purpose
    • (B) Yes, but only if the State legislature consents
    • (C) No, the Union's power to give directions is confined to what appears necessary to secure compliance with laws made by Parliament and existing laws applying in that State
    • (D) No, the Union may give directions only during a proclaimed emergency
  34. 34.What specific power does clause (2) of Article 257 confer on the Union?

    • (A) Power to allow a State to declare means of communication as of national importance.
    • (B) Power to require Parliament to construct all means of communication.
    • (C) Power to give directions to a State as to the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared in the direction to be of national or military importance.
    • (D) Power to prohibit the Union from directing any State about means of communication.
  35. 35.How does the proviso to clause (2) qualify the Union's power under that clause?

    • (A) It states that nothing in clause (2) shall be taken as restricting Parliament's power to declare highways or waterways national, or the Union's power regarding such declared highways/waterways or construction/maintenance as part of naval, military and air force works.
    • (B) It forbids Parliament from declaring any highway or waterway to be national.
    • (C) It transfers exclusive control over national highways to the States.
    • (D) It removes the Union's power to construct and maintain means of communication for military purposes.
  36. 36.Under Article 258(1) of the Constitution, who may entrust functions in relation to any matter to the Government of a State or its officers?

    • (A) The President
    • (B) Parliament
    • (C) The Governor of the State
    • (D) The Prime Minister
  37. 37.May the President entrust functions to a State Government under Article 258(1) without the consent of the Government of that State?

    • (A) Yes, the President may entrust functions unilaterally.
    • (B) Yes, but only conditionally and without consent.
    • (C) No; such entrustment requires the consent of the Government of the State.
    • (D) Only if Parliament authorises it by law.
  38. 38.Which of the following statements correctly reflects a provision of Article 258?

    • (A) The President may entrust functions to a State government even without regard to whether the matter falls within Union executive power.
    • (B) A law made by Parliament applying in a State may confer powers and impose duties upon that State even if it relates to a matter beyond the State Legislature's power to make laws.
    • (C) The Government of India must pay all costs incurred by the State in exercising powers conferred under this Article.
    • (D) Powers and duties conferred under this Article are effective only if approved by the State Legislature.
  39. 39.Under Article 258A, the Governor may entrust functions to which of the following recipients?

    • (A) Parliament of India
    • (B) State Legislature
    • (C) The Government of India or to its officers
    • (D) The Supreme Court of India
  40. 40.Which statement about conditions on entrustment under Article 258A is correct?

    • (A) The Governor may entrust functions only conditionally, not unconditionally
    • (B) The Governor may entrust functions only unconditionally, not conditionally
    • (C) Conditions on entrustment must be approved by the State Legislature
    • (D) The Governor may entrust functions either conditionally or unconditionally to the Government of India or its officers
  41. 41.Under Article 260, which types of functions may the Government of India undertake by agreement with the government of a territory outside India?

    • (A) Only executive functions
    • (B) Only legislative functions
    • (C) Executive, legislative and judicial functions
    • (D) Only judicial functions
  42. 42.If an agreement made under Article 260 appears to conflict with a law 'relating to the exercise of foreign jurisdiction for the time being in force', which of the following is governed by the provision?

    • (A) The agreement will prevail over such law
    • (B) The agreement is subject to and governed by that law
    • (C) The agreement prevails only after ratification by Parliament
    • (D) The agreement is automatically void
  43. 43.Which statement correctly captures the limitation on the functions the Government of India may undertake under Article 260?

    • (A) The Government may undertake any functions whether or not they are vested in the government of that territory
    • (B) The Government may undertake only those functions specified elsewhere in the Constitution
    • (C) The Government may undertake functions only if the territory is annexed to India
    • (D) The Government may undertake functions only insofar as those functions are "vested in the Government of such territory"
  44. 44.Which of the following correctly states the effect of Article 261(3)?

    • (A) Final judgments are automatically enforceable everywhere without any law
    • (B) Final judgments or orders by civil courts are capable of execution anywhere within the territory of India according to law
    • (C) Final judgments require parliamentary sanction before execution across States
    • (D) Final judgments are executable only in the State where they were delivered
  45. 45.Does Article 261(3) apply to criminal court judgments for execution across the territory of India?

    • (A) Yes, it applies to both civil and criminal court judgments
    • (B) Yes, but only if Parliament so provides
    • (C) No, it applies only to national (Union) courts
    • (D) No, clause (3) specifically refers to final judgments or orders delivered or passed by civil courts
  46. 46.What power does Article 262(1) of the Constitution of India grant to Parliament regarding inter-State rivers or river valleys?

    • (A) To adjudicate such disputes itself without making any law
    • (B) To provide by law for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter‑State river or river valley
    • (C) To refer all such disputes only to the Supreme Court
    • (D) To leave such disputes exclusively to state legislatures
  47. 47.Can Parliament, under Article 262(2), enact a law that prevents the Supreme Court and other courts from exercising jurisdiction over disputes referred to in clause (1), even if other parts of the Constitution say otherwise?

    • (A) Yes — Article 262(2) begins "Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution" and allows Parliament to provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of such disputes
    • (B) No — Article 262(2) cannot override other constitutional provisions protecting judicial review
    • (C) Only the Supreme Court can be barred; lower courts retain jurisdiction
    • (D) Yes, but only if three‑fourths of state legislatures agree
  48. 48.Which of the following conclusions follows directly from the wording of Article 262(2)?

    • (A) It expressly bars tribunals and administrative bodies as well as courts from exercising jurisdiction
    • (B) It bars the Supreme Court and "any other court" but does not mention tribunals or non‑court bodies, so those are not expressly covered by the text
    • (C) It permits courts to retain jurisdiction over constitutional questions despite the bar
    • (D) It applies only where both states concerned consent to Parliament's law
  49. 49.What condition must be satisfied before the President may establish a Council under Article 263?

    • (A) It appears to the President that the public interests would be served
    • (B) A majority of States pass resolutions in favour
    • (C) A resolution of both Houses of Parliament is passed
    • (D) A recommendation is received from the Supreme Court
  50. 50.Can the Inter-State Council under clause (b) investigate subjects where only some States, or the Union and one or more States, have a common interest?

    • (A) Only if all States have a common interest
    • (B) Only when Parliament authorizes the investigation
    • (C) Only for subjects enumerated in the Constitution
    • (D) Yes; it may investigate and discuss subjects in which some or all States, or the Union and one or more of the States, have a common interest

Answer key

1. B2. C3. A4. B5. D6. B7. B8. B9. C10. D11. A12. B13. A14. B15. A16. B17. A18. B19. B20. D21. A22. C23. B24. C25. B26. A27. B28. C29. A30. C31. A32. B33. C34. C35. A36. A37. C38. B39. C40. D41. C42. B43. D44. B45. D46. B47. A48. B49. A50. D

Explanations

  1. 1. (B) Article 245(1) states that, subject to the Constitution, Parliament may make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. This expressly allows Parliament to legislate for either the entire territory or any part of it.
  2. 2. (C) Article 245(2) expressly states that no law made by Parliament shall be deemed invalid on the ground that it would have extra‑territorial operation. Thus extraterritorial operation alone does not render a Parliamentary law invalid.
  3. 3. (A) Article 245(1) begins with 'Subject to the provisions of this Constitution' and then describes the powers of Parliament and the State Legislatures in the same sentence, indicating that both are subject to the Constitution's provisions. Therefore the limitation applies to both bodies.
  4. 4. (B) Article 246(3) provides that, 'Subject to clauses (1) and (2), the Legislature of any State has exclusive power to make laws for such State ... with respect to any of the matters enumerated in List II (the State List)'.
  5. 5. (D) Article 246(1) prefatory wording 'Notwithstanding anything in clauses (2) and (3)' indicates that Parliament's power over List I is exclusive and prevails despite any provisions in clauses (2) and (3).
  6. 6. (B) Article 246A(1) states that "Parliament, and, subject to clause (2), the Legislature of every State, have power to make laws with respect to goods and services tax...". Thus both Parliament and State Legislatures (subject to clause (2)) have legislative power over GST.
  7. 7. (B) Article 246A(2) states Parliament has exclusive power where the supply takes place in the course of inter-State trade or commerce, so State Legislatures cannot independently legislate in those inter-State supply cases. The exclusivity is plain and leaves no role for State law-making for inter-State supplies.
  8. 8. (B) Article 246A(1) provides that Parliament, and, subject to clause (2), the Legislature of every State, have power to make laws with respect to goods and services tax "imposed by the Union or by such State." This expressly permits State Legislatures to legislate on GST imposed by the Union, subject to the exclusivity in clause (2).
  9. 9. (C) The provision expressly permits Parliament to establish additional courts for the better administration of laws made by Parliament or of any existing laws with respect to a matter enumerated in the Union List. It does not extend that power to State List laws generally.
  10. 10. (D) Article 247 begins with 'Notwithstanding anything in this Chapter,' indicating that Parliament may by law provide for additional courts despite other provisions in the same Chapter that might otherwise restrict such action. It thus overrides contrary provisions in the Chapter.
  11. 11. (A) Article 248(1) states that Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. The provision explicitly assigns exclusivity to Parliament for such residuary matters.
  12. 12. (B) Article 248(2) states that Parliament's residuary power includes making any law imposing a tax not mentioned in either the Concurrent or the State List, which indicates Parliament may legislate to impose such a tax.
  13. 13. (A) Article 248(1) grants Parliament exclusive power over matters not enumerated in the Concurrent or State List, and Article 248(2) expressly includes the power to make laws imposing taxes not mentioned in those Lists. The combined reading matches the first statement.
  14. 14. (B) Clause (2) provides that a resolution passed under clause (1) shall remain in force for such period not exceeding one year as may be specified therein. The maximum initial period is therefore one year.
  15. 15. (A) Clause (1) expressly provides that it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws "for the whole or any part of the territory of India" with respect to the specified State List matter while the resolution remains in force.
  16. 16. (B) Article 250(1) expressly states that while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, Parliament shall have power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List for the whole or any part of India. The provision does not speak of delegation to states, limiting to Union List, or bypassing the constitutional amendment process.
  17. 17. (A) Article 250(1) explicitly allows Parliament, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, to make laws "for the whole or any part of the territory of India" with respect to State List matters. It is not limited to Union territories or only the State where emergency was proclaimed.
  18. 18. (B) Article 250(2) specifies that a law which Parliament "would not but for the issue of a Proclamation of Emergency have been competent to make" shall, "to the extent of the incompetency, cease to have effect" after six months. Thus only the portions exceeding Parliament's normal competence lapse, not necessarily the whole law or solely Fundamental Rights or penal clauses.
  19. 19. (B) The opening sentence of Article 251 says: "Nothing in articles 249 and 250 shall restrict the power of the Legislature of a State to make any law which under this Constitution it has power to make." Thus States retain their legislative competence even where Parliament has powers under Articles 249/250.
  20. 20. (D) Article 251 states that the State law shall be inoperative "to the extent of the repugnancy, but so long only as the law made by Parliament continues to have effect." This implies that if the Parliamentary law ceases to have effect, the previously repugnant parts of the State law become operative again to that extent.
  21. 21. (A) Clause (1) states that if the Legislatures of two or more States pass resolutions that it is desirable that a matter be regulated by Parliament, it shall be lawful for Parliament to pass an Act to regulate that matter. The provision requires resolutions by the state Legislatures, not presidential or judicial action.
  22. 22. (C) Clause (2) explicitly states that any Act so passed by Parliament may be amended or repealed by an Act of Parliament passed or adopted in like manner, but shall not, as respects any State to which it applies, be amended or repealed by an Act of the Legislature of that State. Thus amendment/repeal must follow the Parliamentary route, not state legislation.
  23. 23. (B) Clause (2) makes clear that although a State may adopt the Act (clause (1)), the Act shall not, as respects any State to which it applies, be amended or repealed by an Act of the Legislature of that State. Thus adoption by a State does not permit that State to amend or repeal the Act by its own legislation.
  24. 24. (C) The Article explicitly provides Parliament power "to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention." It therefore allows lawmaking for either the entire territory or any part of it.
  25. 25. (B) Article 253 lists "treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body." It therefore explicitly covers decisions made at international conferences, associations or other bodies as well as treaties.
  26. 26. (A) Article 254(1) states that where a State law is repugnant to a law made by Parliament on a Concurrent List matter, the law made by Parliament shall prevail and the State law shall, to the extent of the repugnancy, be void.
  27. 27. (B) The proviso to Article 254(2) expressly states that nothing prevents Parliament from enacting at any time any law on the same matter, including a law adding to, amending, varying or repealing the State law; thus a subsequent Parliamentary law will prevail.
  28. 28. (C) Article 254(2) provides that a State law with presidential assent shall prevail in that State despite repugnancy to an earlier Parliamentary law; the proviso, however, expressly allows Parliament to enact at any time a law including adding to, amending, varying or repealing the State law.
  29. 29. (A) The opening words of the provision are: “No Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of a State and no provision in any such Act, shall be invalid…” which shows that it covers Acts of Parliament and State Legislatures and provisions within such Acts. The other choices are not what the text says.
  30. 30. (C) Clause (c) explicitly provides that where the recommendation or previous sanction required was that of the President, the Act is saved only if assent is given “by the President.” The text does not authorize assent by Governor or Rajpramukh in that situation.
  31. 31. (A) The provision states that 'The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in that State.' This makes ensuring compliance the primary executive obligation of the State.
  32. 32. (B) Article 256 requires that 'The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in that State,' so the State must exercise its power to secure compliance.
  33. 33. (C) Article 256 limits the Union's power: it 'shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary' specifically to ensure compliance with parliamentary laws and existing applicable laws, not for any arbitrary purpose.
  34. 34. (C) Clause (2) expressly provides that the executive power of the Union extends to giving directions to a State as to the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared in the direction to be of national or military importance. It does not make the other statements.
  35. 35. (A) The proviso to clause (2) explicitly provides that nothing in clause (2) shall be taken as restricting Parliament's power to declare highways or waterways national nor the Union's powers with respect to such declared highways/waterways or its power to construct and maintain means of communication as part of naval, military and air force works.
  36. 36. (A) Article 258(1) expressly states that the President may, with the consent of the Government of a State, entrust functions to that Government or its officers. The provision names the President as the authority to entrust such functions.
  37. 37. (C) Article 258(1) specifies that the President may entrust functions to a State Government "with the consent of the Government of a State." Therefore entrustment under (1) is subject to the State Government's consent.
  38. 38. (B) Article 258(2) expressly allows a law made by Parliament which applies in any State to confer powers and impose duties upon the State notwithstanding that it relates to a matter beyond the State Legislature's power. The other statements are contrary to the text: (1) entrustment under (1) relates to matters to which the executive power of the Union extends and requires consent; (3) payment is only for "extra costs of administration" per (3); (4) no approval by State Legislature is prescribed.
  39. 39. (C) The provision explicitly states the Governor may 'entrust ... to that Government or to its officers,' where 'that Government' refers to the Government of India. The text does not provide for entrustment to Parliament, the State Legislature or the Supreme Court.
  40. 40. (D) The provision expressly states the Governor may 'entrust either conditionally or unconditionally' to the Government of India or its officers, allowing both modes. The text makes no mention of approval by the State Legislature for such conditions.
  41. 41. (C) The provision states the Government of India may by agreement undertake "any executive, legislative or judicial functions vested in the Government of such territory." Thus all three types of functions are covered by Article 260.
  42. 42. (B) The proviso states that "every such agreement shall be subject to, and governed by, any law relating to the exercise of foreign jurisdiction for the time being in force," meaning the agreement must conform to and be governed by that law.
  43. 43. (D) Article 260 permits the Government of India to undertake "any executive, legislative or judicial functions vested in the Government of such territory," which limits the power to functions that are actually vested in that territory's government.
  44. 44. (B) Article 261(3) states that "Final judgments or orders delivered or passed by civil courts in any part of the territory of India shall be capable of execution anywhere within that territory according to law." It therefore allows execution across India but "according to law" (clause (3)).
  45. 45. (D) Article 261(3) specifically refers to "final judgments or orders delivered or passed by civil courts" and says they "shall be capable of execution anywhere within that territory according to law." It therefore refers to civil, not criminal, judgments (clause (3)).
  46. 46. (B) Article 262(1) states that "Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter‑State river or river valley." Thus Parliament's power is to provide by law for adjudication of such disputes.
  47. 47. (A) Article 262(2) expressly states "Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause (1)." Hence Parliament can enact such a bar despite other constitutional provisions.
  48. 48. (B) Article 262(2) specifically says Parliament may provide that "neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction" over such disputes. The provision mentions courts, not tribunals or non‑court bodies, so tribunals are not expressly covered by this wording.
  49. 49. (A) The Article begins with "If at any time it appears to the President that the public interests would be served... it shall be lawful for the President by order to establish such a Council," so the President's opinion that public interests would be served is the triggering condition.
  50. 50. (D) Clause (b) states the Council may "investigat[e] and discuss[] subjects in which some or all of the States, or the Union and one or more of the States, have a common interest," so investigation in cases involving some States or the Union and some States is expressly permitted.

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