Practice paper — Constitution Part VI — The States

1.According to Article 152, as quoted, the expression "State" in this Part:

• (A) Includes the State of Jammu and Kashmir
• (B) Does not include the State of Jammu and Kashmir
• (C) Includes only the State of Jammu and Kashmir
• (D) Excludes all States mentioned elsewhere

2.Can the same person be appointed Governor for three States at the same time under Article 153?

• (A) No — the proviso limits sharing to exactly two States.
• (B) Yes — but only if the States consent.
• (C) Yes — but only where the States form a single administrative unit.
• (D) Yes — the proviso allows appointment of the same person as Governor for 'two or more States', so three is permitted.

3.In Article 155, the phrase 'by warrant under his hand and seal' most directly indicates which element of the appointment?

• (A) The form or instrument of appointment
• (B) The place where the appointment occurs
• (C) The duration/term of the Governor's office
• (D) A requirement of parliamentary approval

4.According to Article 157, which of the following is a mandatory qualification for appointment as Governor?

• (A) Be a citizen of India
• (B) Be a resident of the state to which appointed
• (C) Be a member of Parliament
• (D) Have completed the age of thirty years

5.Which statement correctly captures the relationship between Article 158(3) and Article 158(4) regarding the Governor's emoluments?

• (A) Parliament may determine the Governor's emoluments by law, but those emoluments shall not be diminished during the Governor's term of office.
• (B) Parliament can, by subsequent law, reduce the Governor's emoluments at any time during his term.
• (C) The President may diminish the Governor's emoluments during a national emergency.
• (D) Emoluments specified in the Second Schedule can never be altered by Parliament even before a law is made.

6.Does Article 160 allow the President to make provision for discharge of functions of persons other than the Governor of a State?

• (A) Yes, it applies to any State officer when needed.
• (B) Yes, but only for members of the State Legislature.
• (C) Yes, but only in national emergencies.
• (D) No, it is confined to the functions of the Governor of a State.

7.Article 162 begins with the phrase 'Subject to the provisions of this Constitution'. What is the immediate legal effect of that phrase on the State's executive power?

• (A) It makes State executive power unrestricted by any law
• (B) It makes State executive power limited only by State legislation
• (C) It makes State executive power subject to the provisions of the Constitution
• (D) It makes State executive power superior to laws of Parliament

8.Under Article 164(1), who appoints the Chief Minister of a State?

• (A) The Governor
• (B) The President
• (C) The State Legislature
• (D) The Prime Minister

9.Can the Advocate-General be said to have a fixed tenure under Article 165?

• (A) Yes — a fixed term of five years is provided
• (B) No — the Advocate-General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor
• (C) Yes — until the Advocate-General reaches a retirement age prescribed in the article
• (D) No — removable only by resolution of the State Legislature

10.If a Minister has taken a decision on a matter which has not been considered by the Council of Ministers, is the Chief Minister required to submit that matter to the Council on his own initiative under Article 167?

• (A) Yes, the Chief Minister must submit it on his own initiative.
• (B) No, the Chief Minister must refuse unless the Governor directs a submission.
• (C) Only if the Governor so requires must the Chief Minister submit it to the Council of Ministers.
• (D) Only after the President's approval can it be submitted.

11.Which majority requirement must the State Legislative Assembly satisfy when passing a resolution under Article 169?

• (A) A simple majority of members present and voting
• (B) A majority of the total membership of the Assembly and a majority of not less than two‑thirds of the members present and voting
• (C) Unanimous consent of all members of the Assembly
• (D) A majority of the total membership only

12.Which specific readjustments are stated as not necessary until the relevant figures for the first census taken after 2026 have been published under Article 170(3)?

• (A) Neither total seats nor division into constituencies can be readjusted after 2026 under any circumstances
• (B) Only the division of the State into constituencies (as per 1971 census) need not be readjusted until after the first census post-2026
• (C) It shall not be necessary to readjust (i) the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of each State as readjusted on the basis of the 1971 census; and (ii) the division of such State into territorial constituencies as may be readjusted on the basis of the 2001 census
• (D) Only the total number of seats (as readjusted on the 2001 census) need not be readjusted until after the first census post-2026

13.What is the legal effect when the five-year period of a State Assembly expires under Article 172(1)?

• (A) The Assembly simply ceases to function but is not dissolved
• (B) The Governor decides whether it should be dissolved
• (C) The Assembly continues until it is formally dissolved by law
• (D) The expiration of the said period of five years shall operate as a dissolution of the Assembly

14.Which of the following powers is explicitly conferred on the Governor by Article 174(2)?

• (A) Dissolve the Legislative Council
• (B) Prorogue the House or either House
• (C) Appoint the Chief Minister
• (D) Summon the Parliament of India

15.When is the Governor required to address the State Legislature under Article 176?

• (A) Only at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Legislative Assembly.
• (B) Only at the commencement of the first session of each year.
• (C) At the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Legislative Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year.
• (D) At the commencement of every session of the Legislature.

16.What is the correct effect of the phrase 'but shall not, by virtue of this article, be entitled to vote' in Article 177?

• (A) It absolutely and forever bars Ministers and the Advocate-General from voting in the Legislature.
• (B) It means Article 177 does not confer any voting right on Ministers or the Advocate-General; the article only grants speaking and participation rights.
• (C) It allows them to vote in committees but not in the Houses.
• (D) It allows them to vote only when they are named members of a committee.

17.What type of majority is required for the Assembly to remove its Speaker or Deputy Speaker under clause (c)?

• (A) A simple majority of members present and voting
• (B) A two-thirds majority of members present
• (C) A majority of all the then members of the Assembly
• (D) Unanimous consent of all members

18.If a resolution for the removal of the Deputy Speaker is under consideration, who, according to Article 181(1), is disqualified from presiding over that sitting?

• (A) The Deputy Speaker, though he is present, shall not preside.
• (B) The Speaker, though he is present, shall not preside.
• (C) Both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker shall not preside.
• (D) No one is disqualified; the usual presiding arrangements continue.

19.If the Deputy Chairman wishes to resign his office under Article 183, to whom must he address his resignation?

• (A) To the Governor of the State
• (B) To the Chief Minister
• (C) To the Chairman of the Council
• (D) To the Secretary of the Council

20.When the office of the Chairman is vacant and the Deputy Chairman is available, can the Governor appoint another member to perform the Chairman's duties under Article 184(1)?

• (A) No — duties shall be performed by the Deputy Chairman.
• (B) Yes — Governor may appoint any member even if Deputy Chairman exists.
• (C) Yes, but only with the Council's approval.
• (D) No — only the President may appoint in that situation.

21.Does the phrase "may be respectively fixed" in the provision allow the State Legislature to set different salaries for each of the offices mentioned?

• (A) No — it requires identical salaries for all the offices
• (B) Only if Parliament delegates that power
• (C) Yes — "respectively" permits fixing amounts separately for each office
• (D) Only the Speaker and Chairman can have different salaries, not the deputies

22.Before whom must the oath or affirmation be made and subscribed as per Article 188?

• (A) The President of India
• (B) The Speaker of the Assembly
• (C) The Chief Justice of the State High Court
• (D) The Governor, or some person appointed in that behalf by him

23.According to Article 190(1), can a person be a member of both Houses of the Legislature of a State at the same time?

• (A) Yes, if the Speaker permits membership of both Houses
• (B) Yes, but only for a temporary period specified by the State Legislature
• (C) No, no person shall be a member of both Houses of the Legislature of a State
• (D) Only if the President issues a notification allowing dual membership

24.What is the correct legal implication of the Explanation to Article 191(1)(a) regarding Ministers and offices of profit?

• (A) It means a person is not to be treated as holding an office of profit under the Government solely because he is a Minister, but he may still be disqualified if he holds some other office of profit.
• (B) It creates an absolute exemption so that a Minister can never be disqualified on account of holding any office of profit.
• (C) It applies only to Union Ministers and not to State Ministers.
• (D) It treats a Minister as holding an office of profit for all purposes except disqualification.

25.A person sits in the State Legislative Assembly before taking the oath required by Article 188, but takes the oath later the same day. Under Article 193, is he liable to the penalty for that day?

• (A) No — taking the oath later that day absolves liability for that day
• (B) Yes — liable for each day on which he sat or voted before complying with Article 188
• (C) No — penalty applies only if he never takes the oath at all
• (D) Yes — but only if the Speaker certifies the breach

26.According to Article 195, who determines the salaries and allowances of members of a State Legislature?

• (A) The Governor of the State
• (B) The Legislature of the State by law
• (C) The Parliament of India
• (D) The President of India

27.According to Article 197(3), which category of bills is excluded from the operation of Article 197?

• (A) Money Bills
• (B) Bills other than Money Bills
• (C) Financial Bills
• (D) Bills requiring President's prior recommendation

28.Which of the following correctly describes the power of a Legislative Council regarding amendments to a Money Bill?

• (A) The Legislative Council cannot itself amend a Money Bill but may return it with recommendations which the Assembly may accept or reject
• (B) The Legislative Council may amend and pass a Money Bill and send it back to the Assembly
• (C) The Legislative Council may require the Assembly to accept its amendments by a special resolution
• (D) The Legislative Council has no role; it cannot even suggest changes to a Money Bill

29.May the Governor return a Money Bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration under the proviso to Article 200?

• (A) Yes — the Governor can always return a Money Bill for reconsideration
• (B) Yes — but only with the President's prior approval
• (C) No — the Governor may return a Bill only if it is not a Money Bill
• (D) Only if the State Legislative Council agrees to reconsider

30.Who is required by Article 202 to lay the annual financial statement before the State Legislature?

• (A) The President of India
• (B) The State Legislature itself
• (C) The Governor of the State
• (D) The Chief Minister of the State

31.Under Article 203, can the Legislative Assembly increase the amount specified in a demand for a grant?

• (A) Yes, it may increase the amount if it deems fit
• (B) No, it can only assent, refuse, or assent subject to a reduction of the amount specified
• (C) Yes, but only with the Governor's express permission
• (D) Only the Finance Minister can propose an increase

32.Which of the following correctly states the effect of Articles 202, 203 and 204 as per Article 205(2)?

• (A) Articles 202–204 do not apply to supplementary statements, demands or related appropriation laws
• (B) Articles 202–204 shall have effect in relation to any such statement and expenditure or demand and also to any law to be made authorising appropriation, just as they apply to the annual financial statement
• (C) Articles 202–204 apply only to demands for excess expenditure but not to statements for supplementary expenditure
• (D) Articles 202–204 apply only to the annual financial statement and cannot be extended to supplementary matters

33.Does Article 207(1) require the Governor's recommendation for the moving of an amendment that makes provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax?

• (A) Yes, recommendation is always required.
• (B) No, the proviso exempts such amendments from recommendation.
• (C) Only if the amendment increases any other tax.
• (D) Only in States with a Legislative Council.

34.Under Article 209 of the Constitution of India, the State Legislature may regulate by law the procedure of, and the conduct of business in, the House or Houses of the Legislature of the State in relation to which of the following?

• (A) Any financial matter or any Bill for the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of the State
• (B) Criminal and civil litigation procedure
• (C) Organisation and functions of the State executive
• (D) Appointment and removal of judges

35.Article 210 begins with 'Notwithstanding anything in Part XVII, but subject to the provisions of article 348.' Which statement best describes the legal relationship implied by this wording?

• (A) Article 210 overrides any contrary provision in Part XVII but remains subject to Article 348
• (B) Part XVII overrides Article 210 in case of conflict, and Article 348 is subordinate to Article 210
• (C) Article 348 overrides Article 210, which in turn overrides Part XVII
• (D) Article 210 overrides both Part XVII and Article 348 in all respects

36.If the Speaker of a State Assembly suspends a member to maintain order during a sitting, can a court exercise jurisdiction over that suspension under Article 212(2)?

• (A) Yes, a court can always review such disciplinary actions
• (B) No, courts cannot have jurisdiction in respect of the exercise by him of those powers
• (C) Yes, but only with prior leave of the State Governor
• (D) Only if the suspension relates to financial matters

37.If Article 214 were repealed, which of the following would be the direct legal effect?

• (A) The Supreme Court would cease to exist.
• (B) High Courts would become superior to the Constitution.
• (C) The constitutional provision mandating a High Court for each State would be removed.
• (D) States would be required to have multiple High Courts.

38.Does Article 216 prescribe a fixed number of judges for a High Court?

• (A) Yes — it prescribes a fixed number of judges
• (B) Yes — it prescribes a minimum of two judges
• (C) No — it does not prescribe a fixed number and allows the President to appoint judges as deemed necessary
• (D) Yes — the Chief Justice determines the fixed number

39.What substitution does Article 218 require when applying clauses (4) and (5) of Article 124 to a High Court?

• (A) References to the Supreme Court are to be read as references to the High Court
• (B) References to the High Court are to be read as references to the Supreme Court
• (C) References to the Supreme Court are to be read as references to any court
• (D) No substitution is required; the clauses apply verbatim

40.Under Article 220, which category of person is specifically restricted from pleading or acting in courts or before authorities in India?

• (A) A person who, after the commencement of the Constitution, has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court
• (B) A person who has served as an acting or temporary Judge of a High Court
• (C) Any advocate enrolled with a State Bar Council
• (D) A person who has been a permanent Judge of the Supreme Court

41.Under Article 221(2), who is empowered to determine a Judge's allowances and rights in respect of leave and pension?

• (A) The President of India
• (B) The High Courts themselves
• (C) State Legislatures
• (D) By or under law made by Parliament

42.Can the President, under Article 223, appoint a judge from a different High Court to perform the duties of the Chief Justice of a particular High Court?

• (A) Yes — the President may appoint any judge from any High Court
• (B) Yes — but only with parliamentary approval
• (C) Yes — but only if the other High Court consents
• (D) No — the duties shall be performed by one of the other Judges of the Court (i.e., of that High Court) as the President may appoint

43.Before the Chief Justice of a High Court can request a former judge to sit under Article 224A, which prior consent is required?

• (A) Previous consent of the Governor of the State
• (B) Previous consent of the President
• (C) Previous approval of Parliament
• (D) Previous recommendation of the Chief Justice of India

44.If a pre‑commencement practice of a High Court conflicts with a provision of the new Constitution, what is the effect under Article 225?

• (A) The pre‑commencement practice continues unchanged despite the constitutional provision.
• (B) The pre‑commencement practice is preserved unless and until the appropriate Legislature passes a law to change it; the Constitution is not relevant.
• (C) The pre‑commencement jurisdiction or practice is preserved only to the extent consistent with the provisions of the Constitution, i.e., constitutional provisions will override inconsistent pre‑existing position.
• (D) It is left to the individual High Court judges to choose whether to follow the Constitution or the pre‑commencement practice.

45.Does Article 227 permit a High Court to exercise its superintendence over courts or tribunals constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces?

• (A) Yes, in all respects
• (B) No, Article 227 excludes such courts and tribunals
• (C) Yes, but only for prescribing forms and fees
• (D) Yes, but only with the Governor's prior approval

46.According to Article 229, upon which fund are the administrative expenses of a High Court charged?

• (A) The Consolidated Fund of the State
• (B) The Consolidated Fund of India
• (C) A separate High Court Fund maintained by the Court
• (D) The Governor's Contingency Fund

47.Under Article 231 of the Constitution, what power is expressly given to Parliament?

• (A) To establish a common High Court for two or more States or for two or more States and a Union territory
• (B) To merge two or more High Courts into a single State High Court
• (C) To abolish High Courts and transfer their jurisdiction to the Supreme Court
• (D) To appoint the Chief Justice of every High Court

48.Which statement best describes the High Court's role under Article 233 regarding appointment, posting and promotion of district judges?

• (A) The Governor alone appoints, posts and promotes district judges without involving the High Court
• (B) The Governor must consult the High Court in appointments, postings and promotions; additionally, a person not already in service must be recommended by the High Court to be eligible
• (C) The High Court alone appoints district judges and forwards recommendations to the Governor only for record
• (D) Only the High Court can recommend candidates and the Governor has only a formal role

49.Who is empowered to make the rules 'in that behalf' governing these appointments under Article 234?

• (A) The State Legislature
• (B) The High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State
• (C) The Governor of the State
• (D) The State Public Service Commission

50.How does Article 236(b) define the expression "judicial service"?

• (A) Service of all court administrative and ministerial staff
• (B) Service only of sessions judges
• (C) Service of High Court judges and below
• (D) A service consisting exclusively of persons intended to fill the post of district judge and other civil judicial posts inferior to the post of district judge