संSamvidhan
Practice paper — Constitution Part III — Fundamental Rights
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1.The definition of 'the State' in Article 12 applies for the purposes of:
- (A) The whole Constitution
- (B) Part IV only
- (C) This Part (Part III, Fundamental Rights)
- (D) All laws in force in India
2.The definition of 'the State' in Article 12 operates:
- (A) Absolutely, in every context without exception
- (B) Only when a statute expressly adopts it
- (C) Only during a proclamation of emergency
- (D) Unless the context otherwise requires
3.Article 13(2) prohibits the State from making any law which:
- (A) Regulates fundamental rights in public interest
- (B) Delegates legislative power to the executive
- (C) Takes away or abridges the rights conferred by Part III
- (D) Applies retrospectively
4.Parliament amends the Constitution under Article 368 in a manner alleged to abridge a fundamental right. As per the express text of Article 13, the amendment is:
- (A) Void under Article 13(2) as a 'law'
- (B) Void under Article 13(1) as a law in force
- (C) Valid only if ratified by all States
- (D) Outside Article 13 altogether, by virtue of clause (4)
5.The guarantee under Article 14 operates:
- (A) Wherever an Indian citizen may be in the world
- (B) Within the territory of India
- (C) Only in the States, not Union territories
- (D) Only in areas notified by Parliament
6.Article 15(1) prohibits the State from discriminating against any citizen on grounds only of:
- (A) Religion, race, caste, sex, descent and residence
- (B) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
- (C) Religion, language, caste and property
- (D) Race, caste, sex and political opinion
7.Special provisions under Article 15(5) for admission of backward classes, SCs and STs to educational institutions do NOT extend to:
- (A) Private unaided educational institutions
- (B) State-aided educational institutions
- (C) Government educational institutions
- (D) Minority educational institutions referred to in Article 30(1)
8.Which two grounds appear in Article 16(2) but are NOT among the grounds listed in Article 15(1)?
- (A) Religion and race
- (B) Caste and sex
- (C) Language and property
- (D) Descent and residence
9.Under Article 16(4B), reserved vacancies of a year that remain unfilled and are carried forward to succeeding years are:
- (A) Lapsed after one year and cannot be filled
- (B) Counted with the current year's vacancies for the fifty per cent ceiling
- (C) Convertible into unreserved vacancies at the State's discretion
- (D) Treated as a separate class of vacancies not counted with the current year's vacancies for the fifty per cent ceiling
10.The prohibition of the practice of Untouchability under Article 17 extends to:
- (A) Its practice in any form
- (B) Only its practice in public places
- (C) Only its practice by State officials
- (D) Only its practice in institutions receiving State funds
11.Under Article 18(1), the State shall not confer any title except:
- (A) Hereditary and royal titles
- (B) Military or academic distinctions
- (C) Civilian honours of any kind
- (D) Titles approved by Parliament
12.Article 18(4) prohibits a person holding an office of profit or trust under the State from accepting, without the President's consent, which of the following from or under a foreign State?
- (A) Any present, emolument, or office of any kind
- (B) Only monetary rewards exceeding a prescribed limit
- (C) Only hereditary titles
- (D) Only military decorations
13.Which of the following is expressly guaranteed as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)?
- (A) The right to assemble peaceably and without arms
- (B) The right to strike
- (C) The right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
- (D) The right to constitutional remedies
14.'Friendly relations with foreign States' is a permissible ground for imposing reasonable restrictions under Article 19 on:
- (A) All six freedoms in Article 19(1)
- (B) The freedoms of assembly and association only
- (C) The freedoms of speech, assembly and association
- (D) The freedom of speech and expression only, under Article 19(2)
15.An amending Act of 2025 enhances the punishment for an offence that X committed in 2023. Can the enhanced penalty be imposed on X?
- (A) No — Article 20(1) forbids a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of commission of the offence
- (B) Yes, because provisions relating to penalty are merely procedural
- (C) Yes, if the court considers the enhanced penalty just and reasonable
- (D) No, because imposing it would amount to double jeopardy under Article 20(2)
16.Article 21 provides that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to:
- (A) Due process of law
- (B) Procedure established by law
- (C) Reasonable restrictions imposed by the State
- (D) Directions issued by the President
17.Which pair of interests is expressly protected by the text of Article 21?
- (A) Life and property
- (B) Personal liberty and privacy
- (C) Life and livelihood
- (D) Life and personal liberty
18.The education which the State must provide under Article 21A is:
- (A) Free but optional
- (B) Compulsory but fee-based
- (C) Free and compulsory
- (D) Free only for girl children
19.Which statement most accurately captures the scheme of Article 21A?
- (A) It confers an unconditional right to education on children of all ages
- (B) It directs private schools to provide free education to every child
- (C) It obliges the State to provide free and compulsory education to the six-to-fourteen age group, in a manner the State determines by law
- (D) It merely permits, without obliging, the State to fund elementary education
20.The safeguards in clauses (1) and (2) of Article 22 do NOT apply to:
- (A) Juveniles below sixteen years of age
- (B) Persons accused of offences punishable with death
- (C) Public servants under suspension
- (D) An enemy alien, and a person arrested or detained under a law providing for preventive detention
21.Article 23(1) of the Constitution prohibits:
- (A) Untouchability in any form
- (B) Employment of children in factories
- (C) Traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labour
- (D) Bonded labour only in the agricultural sector
22.While imposing compulsory service for public purposes under Article 23(2), the State shall not discriminate on grounds only of:
- (A) Religion, race, caste or class or any of them
- (B) Religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
- (C) Residence and descent
- (D) Religion and language only
23.The prohibition in Article 24 extends to the employment of children in:
- (A) Any establishment whatsoever
- (B) Only factories run by the Government
- (C) Agricultural work and family enterprises
- (D) A factory or mine or any other hazardous employment
24.Which statement correctly distinguishes Articles 23 and 24 of the Constitution?
- (A) Article 23 bans hazardous child employment, while Article 24 bans forced labour
- (B) Both articles contain identical exception clauses in favour of the State
- (C) Article 24 applies only to citizens, while Article 23 applies to all persons
- (D) Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour but saves compulsory State service for public purposes, whereas Article 24's prohibition on child employment in factories, mines and hazardous work admits no exception
25.A law regulates the financial and economic administration of religious institutions. Under Article 25, such a law is:
- (A) Invalid, as an interference with the freedom of religion
- (B) Permissible under Article 25(2)(a), which saves laws regulating economic, financial, political or other secular activity associated with religious practice
- (C) Permissible only with the prior consent of the religious denomination concerned
- (D) Valid only if it applies exclusively to Hindu institutions
26.The rights guaranteed to religious denominations under Article 26 of the Constitution are expressly made subject to—
- (A) Public order, morality and health
- (B) Sovereignty and integrity of India
- (C) Security of the State and friendly relations with foreign States
- (D) Decency, morality and contempt of court
27.The State enacts a law regulating the manner in which a religious denomination administers its immovable property. Under Article 26, such a law is—
- (A) Void, since administration of denominational property is an absolute right
- (B) Permissible, because Article 26(d) requires property to be administered 'in accordance with law'
- (C) Valid only if the denomination consents to it
- (D) Permissible only during the operation of an emergency
28.The protection of Article 27 is available to—
- (A) Citizens of India only
- (B) Every person
- (C) Religious denominations only
- (D) Linguistic and religious minorities only
29.A cess is specifically appropriated to promote all religions in the State on an equal footing. Applying the language of Article 27 strictly, the cess is—
- (A) Unconstitutional, since no tax may be applied to promote religion in any form
- (B) Unconstitutional unless dissenting taxpayers are refunded
- (C) Constitutional only if it is levied as a 'fee' rather than a 'tax'
- (D) Constitutional, since Article 27 bars appropriation for a 'particular' religion or denomination, not for religions generally
30.An educational institution is administered by the State but was established under an endowment requiring that religious instruction be imparted in it. Under Article 28—
- (A) Religious instruction may be imparted, since clause (2) exempts such institutions from the ban in clause (1)
- (B) Religious instruction is absolutely barred by clause (1)
- (C) The endowment must be modified to delete the requirement
- (D) Religious instruction is permitted only outside regular teaching hours
31.Article 29(1) confers the right to conserve a distinct language, script or culture on—
- (A) Religious minorities only
- (B) Linguistic minorities only
- (C) Any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having such distinct language, script or culture
- (D) All persons residing in India, including foreigners
32.A candidate is refused admission to a government college because he failed the qualifying examination, though he alleges his religion also weighed with the authorities. The textual key to deciding an Article 29(2) claim in such a case is that the denial must be—
- (A) On any ground whatsoever connected with religion
- (B) On economic or merit-based criteria
- (C) Proved to be malicious
- (D) Based 'only' on religion, race, caste or language, and not on other legitimate grounds such as failure on merit
33.Under Article 30(2), in granting aid to educational institutions the State shall not discriminate against any institution on the ground that it is—
- (A) Not recognised by a State board
- (B) Charging capitation fees
- (C) Located in a linguistic minority State
- (D) Under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language
34.Which of the following correctly contrasts Article 29(1) with Article 30(1)?
- (A) Article 29(1) is confined to minorities, while Article 30(1) extends to any section of citizens
- (B) Article 29(1) protects any section of citizens having a distinct language, script or culture, while Article 30(1) is confined to minorities based on religion or language
- (C) Both provisions apply only to religious minorities
- (D) Article 30(1) protects conservation of culture, while Article 29(1) deals with establishing educational institutions
35.The repeal of Article 31 took effect from—
- (A) 26 January 1978
- (B) 1 April 1978
- (C) 26 November 1976
- (D) 20 June 1979
36.Article 31A saves the specified categories of laws from being deemed void on the ground of inconsistency with—
- (A) Any provision of Part III
- (B) Article 14 or Article 19
- (C) Article 21 only
- (D) Articles 14, 19 and 31
37.Under the second proviso to Article 31A(1), where the State acquires land held by a person under his personal cultivation and within the ceiling limit applicable to him, the acquisition law must provide for compensation at a rate—
- (A) Fixed at the discretion of the Collector
- (B) Equal to the registered value of the land
- (C) Determined by the acquiring authority with Presidential approval
- (D) Not less than the market value of the land, building or structure
38.Acts protected by Article 31B cannot be deemed void on the ground of inconsistency with—
- (A) Article 14 or Article 19 only
- (B) Article 13 only
- (C) Any of the rights conferred by any provisions of Part III
- (D) Directive Principles of State Policy
39.Which statement correctly distinguishes Article 31B from Article 31A?
- (A) Article 31A confers wider protection than Article 31B
- (B) Article 31B protects the Acts specified in the Ninth Schedule against all the rights in Part III, while Article 31A protects only defined categories of laws and only against Articles 14 and 19
- (C) Article 31B applies only to State laws, while Article 31A applies only to Central laws
- (D) Article 31B requires the President's assent for State laws, while Article 31A does not
40.A State Legislature enacts a law declaring that it gives effect to a Directive Principle and claims the protection of Article 31C. Under the proviso to Article 31C, this protection is available only if:
- (A) the law has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent
- (B) the law is ratified by both Houses of Parliament
- (C) the Governor certifies that the law relates to Part IV
- (D) the Supreme Court certifies the declaration as valid
41.Article 31D of the Constitution dealt with which subject before its repeal?
- (A) Saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates
- (B) Saving of laws in respect of anti-national activities
- (C) Compulsory acquisition of property
- (D) Saving of laws giving effect to directive principles
42.What is the present status of Article 31D in the Constitution of India?
- (A) It operates as a saving clause for security legislation
- (B) It has been renumbered as Article 31C
- (C) It applies only during a proclamation of Emergency
- (D) It stands repealed and confers no protection on any law
43.Which of the following writs is NOT among those named in Article 32(2)?
- (A) Quo warranto
- (B) Injunction
- (C) Prohibition
- (D) Certiorari
44.A petitioner moves the Supreme Court under Article 32 seeking a writ of mandamus to enforce a purely statutory right unconnected with Part III. On the text of Article 32, the correct position is:
- (A) The petition is maintainable, since Article 32(2) confers a general writ jurisdiction
- (B) The petition is maintainable if the statutory right is analogous to a fundamental right
- (C) The petition is maintainable only with the leave of the Chief Justice
- (D) The petition does not fall within Article 32, because the writ power under clause (2) is for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III
45.The repeal of Article 32A became effective from:
- (A) 1-1-1977
- (B) 13-4-1978
- (C) 26-1-1978
- (D) 30-6-1979
46.Under Article 33, who has the power to determine the extent to which fundamental rights may be restricted or abrogated in their application to the Armed Forces?
- (A) The President, by order
- (B) Parliament, by law
- (C) The Supreme Court, by judicial determination
- (D) The Central Government, by notification
47.A civilian technician works on a telecommunication system. Under Article 33(d), Parliament may restrict his fundamental rights only if the telecommunication system is:
- (A) owned by the Central Government
- (B) operated exclusively within cantonment areas
- (C) set up for the purposes of any Force, bureau or organisation referred to in clauses (a) to (c)
- (D) declared strategic by the Ministry of Defence
48.Under Article 34, the power to indemnify persons for acts done during martial law is exercised by:
- (A) The President, by ordinance
- (B) The Governor of the affected State
- (C) Parliament, by law
- (D) The Supreme Court, on a reference
49.A private volunteer, who is not in government service, assists in restoring order in an area under martial law. Can Parliament indemnify him under Article 34?
- (A) No, the indemnity extends only to persons in the service of the Union
- (B) Yes, since Article 34 covers persons in the service of the Union or of a State 'or any other person'
- (C) No, indemnity for civilians requires a constitutional amendment
- (D) Yes, but only if the State Legislature concurrently passes an indemnity law
50.Under Article 35(b), a pre-Constitution law relating to a matter mentioned in Article 35(a)(i) will:
- (A) become void on the commencement of the Constitution
- (B) continue in force only if re-enacted by Parliament within one year
- (C) continue in force until amended by the State Legislature concerned
- (D) continue in force, subject to its terms and to adaptations under Article 372, until altered, repealed or amended by Parliament
Answer key
1. C2. D3. C4. D5. B6. B7. D8. D9. D10. A11. B12. A13. A14. D15. A16. B17. D18. C19. C20. D21. C22. A23. D24. D25. B26. A27. B28. B29. D30. A31. C32. D33. D34. B35. D36. B37. D38. C39. B40. A41. B42. D43. B44. D45. B46. B47. C48. C49. B50. D
Explanations
- 1. (C) Article 12 opens with 'In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires', confining the definition to the Part in which it occurs. It is not a definition for the entire Constitution.
- 2. (D) Article 12 begins 'In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires', so the definition yields where the context indicates a different meaning. It is therefore not an absolute definition.
- 3. (C) Article 13(2) says 'The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part', and any law made in contravention is void to the extent of the contravention.
- 4. (D) Article 13(4) states that 'Nothing in this article shall apply to any amendment of this Constitution made under article 368'. On the text of Article 13 itself, constitutional amendments are thus carved out of the definition of 'law' for the purposes of the article.
- 5. (B) Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws 'within the territory of India'. The protection is territorially defined, not tied to the location of citizens abroad.
- 6. (B) Article 15(1) lists the grounds as 'religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them'. Descent and residence are additional grounds found in Article 16(2), not Article 15(1).
- 7. (D) Article 15(5) covers admission to educational institutions 'including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other than the minority educational institutions referred to in clause (1) of article 30'. Minority institutions are thus expressly excluded.
- 8. (D) Article 16(2) lists 'religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them'. Descent and residence are the two additional grounds absent from Article 15(1).
- 9. (D) Article 16(4B) allows unfilled reserved vacancies under clauses (4) or (4A) to be treated 'as a separate class of vacancies to be filled up in any succeeding year or years', and such vacancies 'shall not be considered together with the vacancies of the year in which they are being filled up' for the fifty per cent ceiling. This insulates carried-forward vacancies from the ceiling computation.
- 10. (A) Article 17 forbids the practice of Untouchability 'in any form', without qualification as to place or actor. The text contains no limitation to public places or State action.
- 11. (B) Article 18(1) provides that 'No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State'. Military and academic distinctions are the only exceptions carved out in the text.
- 12. (A) Article 18(4) bars acceptance of 'any present, emolument, or office of any kind from or under any foreign State' without the consent of the President. It applies to any person holding an office of profit or trust under the State, not merely citizens.
- 13. (A) Article 19(1)(b) guarantees the right 'to assemble peaceably and without arms'. The right to property no longer appears in the list (the text moves from sub-clause (e) directly to (g)), and a right to strike is nowhere mentioned.
- 14. (D) The ground of 'friendly relations with foreign States' appears only in Article 19(2), which qualifies the freedom of speech and expression. Assembly under clause (3) may be restricted only for sovereignty and integrity of India or public order, and association under clause (4) adds only morality — neither mentions foreign relations.
- 15. (A) The second limb of Article 20(1) provides that no person shall 'be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence'. The bar flows from clause (1), not from the double jeopardy rule in clause (2).
- 16. (B) Article 21 uses the expression 'procedure established by law' as the sole condition for deprivation of life or personal liberty. It deliberately does not use the American phrase 'due process of law'.
- 17. (D) Article 21 in terms protects 'life' and 'personal liberty' against deprivation except by procedure established by law. Property, privacy and livelihood are not mentioned in the text of the article itself.
- 18. (C) Article 21A mandates 'free and compulsory education' — both attributes are required by the text. The article draws no distinction between boys and girls.
- 19. (C) The duty-bearer under Article 21A is the State ('The State shall provide'), the beneficiaries are children aged six to fourteen, and the manner of provision is left to be determined by law. The article neither covers all ages nor imposes the obligation directly on private schools.
- 20. (D) Article 22(3) expressly excludes two categories from clauses (1) and (2): any person who is for the time being an enemy alien, and any person arrested or detained under a preventive detention law. No exception is made for juveniles, capital offences or public servants.
- 21. (C) Article 23(1) prohibits 'traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labour'. Untouchability and child employment in factories are dealt with by Articles 17 and 24 respectively.
- 22. (A) Article 23(2) forbids discrimination 'on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them' when imposing compulsory service. The list differs from that in Article 15(1), which is a common source of confusion in exams.
- 23. (D) Article 24 is confined to work 'in any factory or mine' and engagement 'in any other hazardous employment'. It is not, by its text, a blanket ban on every form of child work.
- 24. (D) Article 23(2) expressly permits the State to impose compulsory service for public purposes, qualifying the ban on forced labour. Article 24, by contrast, contains no saving clause at all — its prohibition on employing children below fourteen in factories, mines or hazardous work is absolute on its face.
- 25. (B) Article 25(2)(a) expressly preserves the State's power to make laws 'regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice'. Regulation of the secular, financial side of religious institutions is therefore constitutionally saved.
- 26. (A) Article 26 opens with the words 'Subject to public order, morality and health'. These three grounds alone qualify the denominational rights listed in clauses (a) to (d).
- 27. (B) Clause (d) of Article 26 guarantees the right to administer property 'in accordance with law', which itself contemplates regulation of property administration by valid legislation. The right is thus not absolute.
- 28. (B) Article 27 begins with 'No person shall be compelled', so its protection extends to all persons and is not confined to citizens or to any particular class.
- 29. (D) The prohibition in Article 27 is directed at appropriation for 'any particular religion or religious denomination'. A levy promoting all religions equally, without singling out any particular one, falls outside the literal terms of the Article.
- 30. (A) Article 28(2) carves out an exception: clause (1) does not apply to an institution administered by the State but established under an endowment or trust which requires religious instruction to be imparted. Such instruction therefore remains permissible.
- 31. (C) Article 29(1) speaks of 'any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof' having a distinct language, script or culture of its own. It is not textually confined to minorities, but it is limited to citizens.
- 32. (D) Article 29(2) forbids denial of admission 'on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them'. Where the denial rests on an independent legitimate ground such as lack of merit, the qualifying word 'only' takes the case outside the prohibition.
- 33. (D) Article 30(2) forbids the State, when granting aid, from discriminating against an educational institution 'on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language'.
- 34. (B) Article 29(1) is worded broadly to cover 'any section of the citizens' with a distinct language, script or culture, whereas Article 30(1) is available only to 'minorities, whether based on religion or language'. The two provisions also differ in subject: conservation of culture versus establishment and administration of educational institutions.
- 35. (D) The repeal by section 6 of the Forty-fourth Amendment Act, 1978 is recorded as taking effect w.e.f. 20-6-1979. The date of commencement is thus later than the year of the amending Act.
- 36. (B) Article 31A(1) provides that the enumerated laws shall not be deemed void on the ground that they are inconsistent with, or take away or abridge, the rights conferred by 'article 14 or article 19'. Protection against the whole of Part III is the feature of Article 31B, not 31A.
- 37. (D) The second proviso protects land under personal cultivation within the ceiling limit (and buildings or structures standing thereon or appurtenant thereto): the State cannot acquire it unless the law provides compensation 'at a rate which shall not be less than the market value thereof'.
- 38. (C) Article 31B shields the specified Acts against inconsistency with 'any of the rights conferred by, any provisions of this Part', i.e., the whole of Part III. This is wider than Article 31A, which is limited to Articles 14 and 19.
- 39. (B) Article 31A saves five defined categories of laws (agrarian and allied measures) from challenge under Articles 14 and 19, with a Presidential-assent proviso for State laws. Article 31B, 'without prejudice to the generality' of Article 31A, gives blanket protection to Ninth Schedule Acts against any provision of Part III, and it is Article 31A — not 31B — that carries the Presidential assent requirement.
- 40. (A) The proviso to Article 31C states that where such a law is made by the Legislature of a State, the article shall not apply unless the law, having been reserved for the consideration of the President, has received his assent. Parliamentary ratification or judicial certification is not the requirement.
- 41. (B) The marginal title of Article 31D was 'Saving of laws in respect of anti-national activities'. The provision now stands repealed and only the title and repeal note remain in the text of the Constitution.
- 42. (D) Article 31D was repealed by section 2 of the Constitution (Forty-third Amendment) Act, 1977, w.e.f. 13-4-1978. Since the provision no longer exists, no law can claim any saving or immunity under it.
- 43. (B) Article 32(2) empowers the Supreme Court to issue directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari. Injunction is not one of the five named writs.
- 44. (D) Both clauses (1) and (2) of Article 32 are expressly tied to 'the enforcement of the rights conferred by this Part', i.e., Part III. The writ jurisdiction under Article 32 is therefore not a general remedial jurisdiction for all legal rights, unlike a plenary writ power.
- 45. (B) The text records the repeal of Article 32A by the Constitution (Forty-third Amendment) Act, 1977, s. 3, w.e.f. 13-4-1978. The operative date of the repeal is thus 13 April 1978, not the year of the Amendment Act.
- 46. (B) Article 33 opens with 'Parliament may, by law, determine to what extent any of the rights conferred by this Part shall... be restricted or abrogated'. The power is legislative and vests in Parliament alone.
- 47. (C) Clause (d) of Article 33 covers persons employed in, or in connection with, 'the telecommunication systems set up for the purposes of any Force, bureau or organisation referred to in clauses (a) to (c)'. Mere government ownership or location is not the test; the system must serve those Forces, bureaus or organisations.
- 48. (C) Article 34 provides that 'Parliament may by law indemnify any person' in respect of acts done in connection with the maintenance or restoration of order in an area where martial law was in force. The indemnity must come through parliamentary legislation.
- 49. (B) Article 34 permits Parliament to indemnify 'any person in the service of the Union or of a State or any other person' for acts connected with the maintenance or restoration of order under martial law. The words 'or any other person' extend the indemnity beyond government servants to private individuals.
- 50. (D) Article 35(b) saves any law in force immediately before the commencement of the Constitution with respect to such matters, 'subject to the terms thereof and to any adaptations and modifications that may be made therein under article 372', until it is altered, repealed or amended by Parliament. Only Parliament, not a State Legislature, can displace such a law.