Practice paper — BNSS Chapter XXIX — The Judgment

1.Under Section 392, what is the latest time by which the judgment in a trial of a Criminal Court of original jurisdiction must be pronounced after termination of the trial?

• (A) Not later than forty-five days from termination of the trial
• (B) Not later than seven days from termination of the trial
• (C) Not later than thirty days from termination of the trial
• (D) Not later than sixty days from termination of the trial

2.Which of the following is NOT a permitted method of pronouncing judgment under Section 392(1)?

• (A) Delivering the whole of the judgment
• (B) Reading only the operative part without explaining the substance in a language understood by the accused or his advocate
• (C) Reading out the whole of the judgment
• (D) Reading out the operative part of the judgment and explaining the substance in a language understood by the accused or his advocate

3.When an accused is not in custody, in which of the following situations does Section 392 permit that the accused need not attend to hear the pronounced judgment?

• (A) The accused not in custody must always attend to hear the judgment
• (B) The accused need not attend if he has a standing advocate, regardless of trial attendance being dispensed with
• (C) The accused may be excused only if he is acquitted
• (D) Where the accused's personal attendance during the trial has been dispensed with and the sentence is one of fine only or he is acquitted, he need not attend

4.If the presiding officer reads out the operative part of the judgment and explains its substance in a language understood by the accused (clause (c)), which of the following is an immediate mandatory requirement under Section 392?

• (A) The court must upload the copy of the judgment on its portal within seven days in every case
• (B) The whole judgment or a copy thereof shall be immediately made available for the perusal of the parties or their advocates free of cost
• (C) The court need not provide any copy to the parties but must upload on the portal within seven days
• (D) The court may delay making any copy available until it completes administrative formalities

5.Which of the following is a mandatory content of a judgment under Section 393(1)?

• (A) Only the decision and the sentence imposed
• (B) Only the points for determination and the decision
• (C) The point(s) for determination, the decision thereon and the reasons for the decision
• (D) Only the reasons for the decision

6.If a conviction under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita is doubtful as to which of two sections the offence falls under, what must the Court do according to Section 393(2)?

• (A) Convict under the section that yields the higher punishment
• (B) Express the doubt distinctly and pass judgment in the alternative
• (C) Acquit the accused because of the doubt
• (D) Refer the question to a higher court for clarification before pronouncing judgment

7.Which of the following correctly states the requirements for a judgment and sentence when a person is convicted and sentenced to death under Section 393?

• (A) The judgment must state the reasons for the sentence, the special reasons for awarding death, and the sentence shall direct that he be hanged by the neck till he is dead
• (B) The judgment need state only the special reasons for awarding death; reasons for the sentence generally are not required
• (C) The judgment must state reasons for the sentence but the method of execution is not specified and is left to executive rules
• (D) The judgment must not specify reasons if death is an alternative to life imprisonment

8.Under Section 394 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, when may a Court order that a convicted person's residence and changes thereof be notified?

• (A) When any person is convicted once of an offence punishable with imprisonment for three years or upwards.
• (B) When a person previously convicted of such an offence is again convicted of an offence punishable with imprisonment for three years or upwards by any Court other than that of a Magistrate of the second class.
• (C) Only when the person is convicted by a Magistrate of the second class for such an offence.
• (D) Only when the current conviction is for an offence punishable with imprisonment of less than three years.

9.Does Section 394 apply to criminal conspiracies, abetment and attempts to commit the specified offences?

• (A) Yes — the provisions of sub-section (1) also apply to criminal conspiracies, abetment and attempts.
• (B) No — it applies only to completed substantive offences, not attempts or conspiracies.
• (C) Yes — but only to conspiracies and abetment, not attempts.
• (D) No — it applies only to abetment and not to conspiracy or attempt.

10.If rules are made under Section 394 providing punishment for breach, where may a person charged with breach be tried?

• (A) In the district where the offence creating the conviction was committed.
• (B) By any Magistrate in the State where the breach is alleged to have occurred.
• (C) Only by the High Court in its criminal jurisdiction.
• (D) By a Magistrate of competent jurisdiction in the district in which the place last notified by him as his place of residence is situated.

11.Under Section 395(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following is a permissible application of a fine when a court imposes a sentence of fine?

• (A) To defray the expenses properly incurred in the prosecution
• (B) To pay the convicted person's income tax liabilities
• (C) To pay maintenance to the convicted person's spouse
• (D) To fund construction of court buildings

12.Which of the following courts may also make an order under Section 395, as provided by subsection (4)?

• (A) Appellate Court only
• (B) High Court only
• (C) An Appellate Court or the High Court or the Court of Session when exercising powers of revision
• (D) Supreme Court only

13.Under Section 395(1)(d), in which circumstance may the court apply a fine to compensate a bona fide purchaser of stolen property?

• (A) When the purchaser has filed a police complaint about the sale
• (B) When the purchaser had prior notice that the property might be stolen
• (C) When the property has not been restored to the person entitled thereto
• (D) When a person is convicted of an offence including theft, criminal misappropriation, breach of trust or cheating, and the property is restored to the person entitled thereto

14.Which statement correctly captures the distinction between the court's powers under Section 395 when (A) the sentence includes a fine and (B) the sentence does not include a fine?

• (A) If the sentence includes a fine, the court may apply the fine (whole or part) for specified purposes but compensation under subsection (1)(b) is only ordered when, in the court's opinion, the compensation is recoverable in a civil court; if the sentence does not include a fine, the court may order the accused to pay compensation specified in the order to the person who suffered loss.
• (B) If the sentence includes a fine, the court may always apply the fine to any civil claim regardless of the court's view; if the sentence does not include a fine, the court has no power to order compensation.
• (C) If the sentence does not include a fine, the court can order compensation only after a civil court has decided the matter.
• (D) When a fine is imposed, only the High Court can direct its application to compensate victims; trial courts have no such power.

15.When a Court makes a recommendation for compensation, who shall decide the quantum to be awarded under the scheme?

• (A) The trial Court
• (B) The State Government
• (C) The District Legal Services Authority or the State Legal Service Authority, as the case may be
• (D) The local police authority

16.If the offender is not traced or identified and no trial takes place, who may apply for award of compensation under Section 396(4)?

• (A) The victim or his dependents to the State or the District Legal Services Authority
• (B) The police to the State Legal Services Authority
• (C) The trial Court to the State Government
• (D) The Central Government on behalf of the victim

17.Which of the following accurately describes the authority and conditions for ordering immediate first‑aid or medical benefits under Section 396(6)?

• (A) Any police officer may order immediate medical benefits on his own certificate without involvement of the Legal Services Authority
• (B) The State or District Legal Services Authority may order immediate first‑aid or medical benefits free of cost on the certificate of a police officer not below the rank of the officer in charge of the police station or a Magistrate, or grant any other interim relief as deemed fit
• (C) Only the trial Court can order immediate medical benefits and only upon a medical officer's certificate
• (D) Immediate medical benefits are available only after the enquiry under subsection (5) is complete

18.Which hospitals are required by Section 397 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 to provide free first-aid or medical treatment to victims of the listed offences?

• (A) Only public hospitals run by the Central and State Governments
• (B) Only government-run hospitals (Central or State)
• (C) All hospitals, public or private, whether run by the Central Government, the State Government, local bodies or any other person
• (D) Only private hospitals

19.Does the obligation in Section 397 apply to victims of sub-section (2) of section 124 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

• (A) Yes, it applies to any sub-section of section 124
• (B) No — the provision specifically mentions only sub-section (1) of section 124
• (C) Yes, if the offence is similar in seriousness
• (D) Only if the police first confirm the offence is under section 124

20.A hospital run by a charitable trust receives a victim of an offence listed in Section 397. Is the hospital required to provide free first-aid or medical treatment and inform the police?

• (A) No — only government hospitals have this duty
• (B) Yes, but only if the hospital is registered with the State Health Department
• (C) No — the obligation arises only after police arrive
• (D) Yes — because the phrase "any other person" covers hospitals run by charitable trusts

21.Who is required by Section 398 to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme?

• (A) Every State Government
• (B) The Central Government
• (C) Local Municipalities
• (D) The Police Department

22.What is the primary purpose of the Witness Protection Scheme as stated in Section 398?

• (A) To provide compensation to witnesses
• (B) To ensure protection of the witnesses
• (C) To regulate court procedure for witnesses
• (D) To punish those who intimidate witnesses

23.Does Section 398 require private organisations to prepare a Witness Protection Scheme for the State?

• (A) Yes, private organisations must prepare the Scheme
• (B) Only in certain cases must private organisations prepare it
• (C) Only if the State Government delegates the task
• (D) No, the provision requires the State Government to prepare and notify the Scheme

24.Which description most accurately captures the obligation created by Section 398?

• (A) State Governments must prepare, notify and directly implement protective measures for individual witnesses immediately
• (B) State Governments must prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme for the State with a view to ensure protection of the witnesses
• (C) The provision guarantees every witness immediate enforceable protection by law
• (D) The Central Government must prepare a uniform national Witness Protection Scheme for all States

25.Who is empowered to award compensation under Section 399(1)?

• (A) The police officer who caused the arrest
• (B) The District Collector
• (C) The Magistrate by whom the case is heard
• (D) The State Government

26.If more than one person is arrested groundlessly, what does Section 399(2) permit the Magistrate to do?

• (A) Award a single sum not exceeding Rs. 1,000 to be shared among them
• (B) Award to each arrested person such compensation, not exceeding Rs. 1,000, as the Magistrate thinks fit
• (C) Refuse compensation when multiple persons are arrested
• (D) Limit total compensation for all arrested persons to Rs. 1,000

27.When, according to Section 399(3), may the person by whom compensation is payable be sentenced to simple imprisonment?

• (A) Whenever the Magistrate thinks imprisonment appropriate regardless of recovery attempts
• (B) Only after conviction for another offence related to the arrest
• (C) If the compensation cannot be recovered as if it were a fine, in which case the person shall be sentenced to simple imprisonment not exceeding thirty days unless the sum is sooner paid
• (D) Only if the compensation awarded exceeds Rs. 1,000

28.Section 400 applies to complaints made to a Court in respect of which type of offence?

• (A) Cognizable offences
• (B) Non-cognizable offences
• (C) Both cognizable and non-cognizable offences
• (D) Only offences punishable with imprisonment

29.If a Court convicts an accused under Section 400, is it obliged to order payment of costs to the complainant?

• (A) No — the Court may, at its discretion, order payment of costs
• (B) Yes — the Court must order full repayment of all costs
• (C) Yes — the Court must order payment but only as a fine
• (D) No — only the prosecution can claim costs after conviction

30.Which of the following correctly describes what may be included in the "costs" ordered under Section 400?

• (A) Only process-fees and witness expenses
• (B) Only the complainant's travel expenses
• (C) Any expense the complainant claims, without limitation
• (D) Expenses such as process-fees, witnesses and advocate's fees which the Court may consider reasonable

31.Under Section 401(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum term of imprisonment (other than life or death cases) for which a person not under twenty-one years may be considered for release on probation of good conduct?

• (A) 3 years
• (B) 7 years
• (C) 10 years
• (D) 14 years

32.What is the maximum period (duration) for which the Court may direct that an offender be released on entering into a bond or bail bond under Section 401(1)?

• (A) 1 year
• (B) 2 years
• (C) 3 years
• (D) 5 years

33.Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a court to release an offender after due admonition under Section 401(3)?

• (A) Having regard to the trivial nature of the offence or extenuating circumstances
• (B) No previous conviction is proved against the offender
• (C) The offender must be under twenty-one years of age
• (D) The offence is punishable with not more than two years' imprisonment or with fine only

34.Under Section 401(5), when the High Court or Court of Session sets aside an order made under this section and passes sentence in its place, which limitation applies to the punishment it may impose?

• (A) It may impose any punishment provided by law, including greater than that imposed by the convicting Court
• (B) It may pass sentence according to law but shall not inflict a greater punishment than might have been inflicted by the Court by which the offender was convicted
• (C) It must remit the case back to the original Court for fresh sentencing only
• (D) It may increase punishment only if additional evidence is produced at the appeal stage

35.When does the obligation under Section 402 arise?

• (A) When the court imposes the death penalty
• (B) When the court could have dealt with the accused under section 401 or the Probation of Offenders Act, or a youthful offender under the Juvenile Justice Act or any other law for treatment/training/rehabilitation, but has not done so
• (C) Only when the accused is confirmed to be a juvenile
• (D) When the accused pleads guilty

36.If the court in fact dealt with the accused under section 401, is Section 402’s requirement to record special reasons for not having done so applicable?

• (A) Yes, it must record reasons even if it applied section 401
• (B) Only if the prosecution requests it
• (C) No, the requirement arises only when the court could have dealt under those provisions but has not done so
• (D) Only if the sentence exceeds the statutory maximum

37.If the court could have applied section 401 or the Probation of Offenders Act but instead disposes the matter under a different non-listed provision, does Section 402 require the court to record reasons for not using the listed disposals?

• (A) Yes — the court must record special reasons for not having used those specified provisions
• (B) No — recording is required only when no other disposal is used
• (C) Only if the accused is a juvenile
• (D) Only if the alternate provision carries a higher sentence

38.What does Section 403 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 principally prohibit?

• (A) It permits any court to alter or review its judgment after signing for substantive mistakes.
• (B) It prohibits a court, after signing its judgment or final order disposing of a case, from altering or reviewing it except to correct clerical or arithmetical errors.
• (C) It prohibits courts from correcting clerical or arithmetical errors in signed judgments.
• (D) It allows courts to alter judgments before they are signed.

39.If another law currently in force expressly permits reviewing a signed judgment, what follows from Section 403?

• (A) Section 403 entirely supersedes any other law on review.
• (B) A court may never alter its judgment once signed, even to correct clerical errors.
• (C) The bar on altering signed judgments applies only in criminal cases.
• (D) If another law allows review, the court may alter or review the judgment under that law.

40.When does the prohibition in Section 403 on altering or reviewing apply?

• (A) It applies after a court has signed its judgment or final order disposing of a case.
• (B) It applies only before a judgment has been signed.
• (C) It applies exclusively to interlocutory orders.
• (D) It applies only when a party files a petition for review within 30 days.

41.Under Section 404(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, when is a copy of the judgment to be given to an accused sentenced to imprisonment and at what cost?

• (A) Immediately after pronouncement of the judgment, free of cost.
• (B) Only on application by the accused, free of cost.
• (C) After sentencing formalities are completed, on payment of prescribed charges.
• (D) Immediately after pronouncement, but only on payment of prescribed charges.

42.According to Section 404(2), what may an accused request and receive without delay upon application?

• (A) A certified copy only, but never a translation.
• (B) A certified copy of the judgment, or a translation in his own language if practicable or in the language of the Court.
• (C) Only a translation in any language he names, regardless of practicability.
• (D) A verbal summary of the judgment instead of any written copy.

43.When an accused is sentenced to death by any Court and an appeal lies as of right from such judgment, what duty does the Court have under Section 404(4)?

• (A) To arrange legal aid for the accused free of cost.
• (B) To delay the execution until the appeal is decided.
• (C) To provide a certified copy of the judgment to the accused only if he applies for it.
• (D) To inform him of the period within which, if he wishes to appeal, his appeal should be preferred.

44.Which of the following statements best reflects Section 404(5)–(6) regarding copies of judgments for persons not affected by a judgment or order?

• (A) The High Court may, by rules, provide for the grant of copies of any judgment or order to any person who is not affected, on payment of fees and subject to conditions set by the High Court.
• (B) A person not affected is entitled to a free certified copy on application to the trial Court.
• (C) The Court is prohibited from providing copies to the Government free of cost under any circumstance.
• (D) Any person affected may never be charged for a copy of the judgment or order.

45.When does Section 405 require a translation of the original judgment to be added to the record?

• (A) Whenever the original is recorded in any language
• (B) Only if either party so requires and the original is in a different language from that of the Court
• (C) Only if the Court itself orders a translation
• (D) Only if both parties jointly request a translation

46.Who is empowered under Section 405 to require that a translation into the language of the Court be added to the record?

• (A) Only the appellant
• (B) Only the respondent
• (C) Either party to the proceedings
• (D) Only the presiding judge

47.If the original judgment is in a language different from the Court's language but neither party requests a translation, what follows under Section 405?

• (A) No translation will be added to the record unless requested by either party
• (B) The Court must automatically order a translation and add it to the record
• (C) The lower court must translate it without a request
• (D) A third party may demand translation on behalf of the parties

48.Which authority or authorities are required by Section 406 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 to forward a copy of the finding and sentence?

• (A) District Magistrate
• (B) State Government
• (C) Court of Session or Chief Judicial Magistrate
• (D) Superintendent of Police

49.When is the obligation to forward a copy triggered according to Section 406?

• (A) As soon as the trial begins
• (B) Only if a sentence of imprisonment is imposed
• (C) When the court has recorded its finding and any sentence (i.e., after conclusion of the trial proceedings)
• (D) Only if an appeal is filed

50.If a case tried by a Court of Session is held in a district different from where the accused resides, to which District Magistrate does Section 406 require the copy to be sent?

• (A) District Magistrate of the accused's residence
• (B) District Magistrate within whose local jurisdiction the trial was held
• (C) District Magistrate of the place where the offence occurred
• (D) District Magistrate nominated by the High Court