Practice paper — BNS Chapter XIV — Of False Evidence And Offences Against Public Justice

1.Under Section 227, who is said to give false evidence?

• (A) Any person who makes a false statement in any circumstance.
• (B) A person legally bound by an oath or by an express provision of law to state the truth, or bound by law to make a declaration, who makes a statement which is false and which he knows or believes to be false or does not believe to be true.
• (C) Only a person who, under oath in a court, deliberately lies about a material fact.
• (D) Only a public officer who makes a false official statement.

2.A person, bound by oath, states 'I know that Z was at place P on day D' while having no knowledge on the subject. If Z actually was at place P on day D, is the speaker guilty of giving false evidence under Section 227?

• (A) No — if the statement happens to be factually true, there is no false evidence.
• (B) Yes — stating that one 'knows' a fact without any knowledge is false evidence whether the fact is actually true or not.
• (C) Only if the person intended to deceive the court.
• (D) Only if the statement is later shown to be false.

3.A falsifies an entry in his shop-book but has no intention that the entry will ever be used in a judicial proceeding or any proceeding before a public servant or arbitrator. Under Section 228, is this 'fabricating false evidence'?

• (A) Yes — any false entry in a record is fabrication regardless of intention.
• (B) Yes — if the entry could conceivably be produced later it is an offence.
• (C) Yes — commercial fraud automatically qualifies as fabricating evidence.
• (D) No — Section 228 requires the intention that the false entry or circumstance may appear in evidence in a judicial or similar proceeding.

4.What is the punishment where a person intentionally gives or fabricates false evidence in a case other than that referred to in sub‑section (1) of Section 229?

• (A) Imprisonment up to seven years and fine up to ten thousand rupees
• (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years and fine which may extend to five thousand rupees
• (C) Only a fine which may extend to five thousand rupees
• (D) Imprisonment for life

5.If an innocent person is convicted and executed as a consequence of the false evidence referred to in sub-section (1), what does sub-section (2) prescribe for the person who gave such false evidence?

• (A) Punishment only by death.
• (B) Only the punishment specified in sub-section (1).
• (C) Either death or the punishment specified in sub-section (1).
• (D) No additional punishment beyond the penalty for perjury.

6.Which category of offences does Section 231 specifically target when false evidence is given or fabricated?

• (A) Capital offences punishable with death
• (B) Offences which are not capital but punishable with imprisonment for life or for a term of seven years or upwards
• (C) Offences punishable with imprisonment for less than seven years
• (D) Any offence regardless of its punishment

7.Which of the following elements is essential to constitute the offence under Section 232(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

• (A) Threatening another (or the person/reputation of someone in whom that person is interested) with injury to person, reputation or property, with intent to cause that person to give false evidence.
• (B) Threatening to make a false accusation against another without any intention about the other person's evidence.
• (C) Giving false evidence oneself in a proceeding.
• (D) Threatening another merely to obtain money without any relation to evidence.

8.If an innocent person is convicted as a consequence of the false evidence and sentenced to exactly seven years' imprisonment, what does Section 232(2) prescribe for the person who threatened?

• (A) Section 232(2) does not apply; it applies only where the innocent person is sentenced to death or to imprisonment for more than seven years.
• (B) The threatener must be sentenced to the same seven years under Section 232(2).
• (C) The threatener must be sentenced to life imprisonment under Section 232(2).
• (D) The threatener is automatically liable to both imprisonment and fine regardless of the innocent person's sentence.

9.Which of the following situations falls within the offence described in Section 233?

• (A) A person corruptly uses evidence he knows to be false or fabricated
• (B) A person uses fabricated evidence but honestly believed it was genuine
• (C) A person knowingly uses false evidence but without any corrupt purpose
• (D) A person negligently introduces evidence of uncertain reliability

10.If a person issues or signs a certificate honestly believing it to be true but it later turns out to be false, is he punishable under Section 234?

• (A) Yes — later discovery of falsity makes the issuer punishable
• (B) Yes — if the falsity is material, later consequences determine culpability
• (C) No — only if the person later admits knowledge of falsity
• (D) No — the provision requires that the person knew or believed the certificate was false when issuing or signing it

11.A person unknowingly uses a certificate that is false in a material point. Under Section 235, is that person punishable?

• (A) Yes — ignorance is no defence
• (B) Yes — if the certificate later is proved false
• (C) Only if there is independent evidence of corrupt motive
• (D) No — the section requires use "corruptly" and "knowing" the certificate to be false

12.Does Section 236 apply when the declaration was received by a private person who is not bound or authorised by law to receive it as evidence?

• (A) Yes — any recipient of the declaration makes the statement punishable.
• (B) Yes — if the declaration is later used in any legal proceeding it becomes punishable.
• (C) No — it applies only where the declaration is receivable as evidence by a Court, public servant or other person bound or authorised by law to receive it.
• (D) No — unless the private person forwards it to a public servant.

13.If a declaration is inadmissible merely on the ground of some informality, does Section 237 treat it as a 'declaration' for the purpose of punishment?

• (A) No — inadmissible declarations are excluded from this section.
• (B) Yes — but only if the informality also makes the declaration materially false.
• (C) Yes — the Explanation explicitly states such an informally inadmissible declaration is within the meaning of section 236 and this section.
• (D) Only if the informality is waived by the court does it become a declaration under this section.

14.If the offence which the person knows or believes to have been committed is punishable with death, what is the maximum punishment under Section 238?

• (A) Imprisonment for up to three years and fine
• (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and also liable to fine
• (C) Imprisonment for life without fine
• (D) Imprisonment for up to one-fourth of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence

15.Which mental state regarding awareness that an offence has been committed is required under Section 239 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

• (A) Mere negligence about the offence
• (B) Knowing or having reason to believe that an offence has been committed
• (C) Recklessness about whether an offence occurred
• (D) No mental state; strict liability applies

16.According to Section 240, what is the maximum term of imprisonment for giving false information respecting an offence committed?

• (A) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or fine, or both
• (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or fine, or both
• (C) Imprisonment for life
• (D) Fine only

17.Which of the following best describes the scope of the Explanation's list of sections (103, 105, 307, etc.) in relation to offences committed outside India?

• (A) The Explanation makes every foreign act an 'offence' for Sections 238–240 regardless of the nature of the act
• (B) The Explanation confines inclusion to foreign acts that, if committed in India, would be punishable under the specifically enumerated sections
• (C) The Explanation extends to any foreign act punishable under any Indian law without reference to particular sections
• (D) The Explanation applies only to offences listed anywhere else in the Act, not to the enumerated sections

18.Which timing of the prohibited conduct is expressly covered by Section 241?

• (A) Only acts done before any proceeding has started.
• (B) Only acts done during a court hearing.
• (C) Only acts done after judgment is delivered.
• (D) Acts done after the person shall have been lawfully summoned or required to produce the document for that purpose.

19.Does Section 242 cover causing process to be issued in a civil suit by falsely personating another?

• (A) No, it applies only to criminal prosecutions
• (B) Yes, but only if the person also confesses judgment
• (C) Only when bail or security is provided
• (D) Yes, it covers causing process to be issued in any suit or criminal prosecution

20.A person fraudulently transfers property intending to prevent it being taken in execution of a decree which he knows is likely to be made by a Court in a civil suit. Is this conduct covered by Section 243?

• (A) Yes, the provision covers acts intended to prevent property being taken in execution of a decree likely to be made by a Court
• (B) No, the provision applies only after a decree has actually been made
• (C) No, the provision is limited to forfeiture in criminal sentences and not civil decrees
• (D) Yes, but only if the decree has already been pronounced

21.Which mental element(s) does Section 244 explicitly require for the offence?

• (A) Knowledge that he has no right or rightful claim to the property
• (B) Intention to prevent the property from being taken as forfeiture or in execution
• (C) Either knowledge of no right OR an intention to prevent seizure by deception
• (D) Negligence or reckless disregard regarding the property

22.Which of the following correctly states the core offence under Section 245, Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

• (A) Fraudulently causing or suffering a decree or order to be passed against oneself for a sum not due, for a larger sum than is due, or for any property or interest in property to which one is not entitled.
• (B) Any person against whom a decree or order is passed is guilty, regardless of fraud.
• (C) Only causing a decree to be passed in one’s favour is an offence under this section, not suffering one.
• (D) The section applies only when a decree is passed in respect of immovable property.

23.Which mental state regarding the falsity of the claim is expressly required by Section 246?

• (A) That the person knows the claim to be false
• (B) That the person negligently believed the claim might be false
• (C) That the person honestly believed the claim to be true
• (D) Strict liability irrespective of mental state

24.Does Section 246 require both (a) that the actor be fraudulent or dishonest and (b) that he intend to injure or annoy, for the offence to be made out?

• (A) Yes — both fraudulent/dishonest conduct and intent to injure/annoy are required together.
• (B) No — intent to injure or annoy alone is sufficient even without knowledge the claim is false.
• (C) No — either acting "fraudulently or dishonestly" OR acting "with intent to injure or annoy" suffices, but in all cases the claim must be one "which he knows to be false."
• (D) Yes — the provision applies only when both mental states and knowledge coincide.

25.If a decree corresponds exactly to a sum that was actually due, but the decree was procured by fraudulent means, does Section 247, on its face, criminalise that conduct?

• (A) Yes — any fraudulent procurement of a decree is covered by the section.
• (B) Yes — but only when the decree also disposes of property.
• (C) Yes — and it attracts imprisonment up to two years as a mandatory sentence.
• (D) No — the provision, as worded, addresses sums not due or larger than due, not a rightful sum obtained by fraud.

26.Which factual circumstance would most clearly take an act outside the scope of Section 248?

• (A) Instituting a proceeding without any evidence at all
• (B) Instituting a proceeding with intent to injure but not filing any charge
• (C) Instituting a proceeding based on a mistaken application of law
• (D) Instituting a proceeding while believing there was a just or lawful ground (i.e., not "knowing that there is no just or lawful ground")

27.A knowingly conceals B after learning that B is liable to imprisonment for life. Under Section 249, what is the maximum punishment A can receive?

• (A) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, and also liable to fine
• (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, and also liable to fine
• (C) Imprisonment of the description provided for the offence for a term which may extend to one-fourth part of the longest term
• (D) No punishment because the offence punished the principal only

28.Under Section 250, what is the punishment if the offence being screened is punishable with death?

• (A) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and also liable to fine.
• (B) Imprisonment for life.
• (C) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, and also liable to fine.
• (D) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to one-fourth of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence, or fine, or both.

29.Under Section 251, which of the following acts is an offence?

• (A) Giving or offering any gratification or restoring property to a person in consideration of that person concealing an offence or screening another from legal punishment
• (B) Giving a lawful gift to any person for personal reasons unrelated to an offence
• (C) Restoring property to a person who has a legal claim, regardless of any connection with an offence
• (D) Giving a small token of appreciation to a witness for testifying truthfully

30.Which of the following best describes the conduct made punishable by Section 252 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

• (A) Taking or agreeing to take any gratification under pretence or on account of helping a person recover movable property deprived by an offence punishable under this Sanhita.
• (B) Helping a person recover movable property without charging any fee or gratification.
• (C) Accepting gratification for disposing of movable property lawfully owned by the giver.
• (D) Taking gratification to help recover immovable property deprived by any civil wrong.

31.Which of the following, if established, most directly prevents punishment under Section 252?

• (A) The accused used all means in his power to cause the offender to be apprehended and convicted of the offence.
• (B) The accused returned the gratification after failing to recover the property.
• (C) The accused actually recovered the movable property but did not try to apprehend the offender.
• (D) The accused notified the victim about the offender but took no further steps.

32.How does Section 253 treat an act or omission committed outside India that makes a person liable to be apprehended in India?

• (A) Such acts committed outside India are not covered by Section 253
• (B) They are covered only if an extradition request has been made
• (C) They are treated as foreign offences and attract only extradition proceedings, not Section 253
• (D) They are deemed to be punishable as if the accused had been guilty of it in India for the purposes of this section

33.Which mental state does Section 254 require for criminal liability for harbouring robbers or dacoits?

• (A) Mere suspicion that a person may be a robber or dacoit
• (B) Strict liability requiring no mental element
• (C) Knowing, or having reason to believe, that persons are about to commit or have recently committed robbery or dacoity
• (D) Only intention to commit robbery or dacoity

34.If a public servant knowingly disobeys a direction of law with the aim of helping a person but the person is not in fact saved from legal punishment, is the public servant still liable under Section 255?

• (A) Yes — liability arises only if the person is actually saved from punishment
• (B) No — liability can arise from intending to save or knowing it likely will save even if actual saving does not occur
• (C) Yes — only if property is also saved
• (D) No — liability requires a court conviction proving the person was saved

35.What is the maximum punishment prescribed by Section 256 for a public servant who frames a record he knows to be incorrect as described?

• (A) Imprisonment up to one year only
• (B) Life imprisonment
• (C) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both
• (D) Only a fine

36.According to the provision, who is liable for punishment for making or pronouncing a report, order, verdict, or decision contrary to law?

• (A) Any person
• (B) A public servant
• (C) Only a judicial officer
• (D) Only a lawyer involved in the proceeding

37.Under Section 258, what is the maximum term of imprisonment that may be imposed for committing or keeping a person in confinement corruptly or maliciously knowing it is contrary to law?

• (A) Three years
• (B) Seven years
• (C) Life imprisonment
• (D) Ten years

38.Which of the following is NOT a requirement for an offence under Section 258?

• (A) The person must be in an office that gives legal authority to commit or confine persons
• (B) The act must be done corruptly or maliciously
• (C) There must be an actual conviction of the person committed
• (D) The officer must know he is acting contrary to law when exercising the authority

39.Does Section 259 apply when the person was not yet in confinement but “ought to have been apprehended”?

• (A) No — it applies only to persons already in confinement
• (B) Only if a warrant had been issued
• (C) Only if the person had been formally charged in court
• (D) Yes — the provision covers persons who ought to have been apprehended

40.A public servant intentionally omits to apprehend a person who was lawfully committed to custody but not sentenced. Under which clause of Section 260 and with what maximum punishment is the public servant punishable?

• (A) Clause (a): imprisonment for life or up to 14 years
• (B) Clause (b): imprisonment up to 7 years
• (C) Clause (c): imprisonment up to 3 years, or fine, or both
• (D) No punishment because the person was not sentenced by a Court

41.If a public servant deliberately opens a prison gate and lets a prisoner go free, does Section 261 apply to that act?

• (A) Yes, deliberate release is punishable under Section 261
• (B) Yes, but only if the prisoner was convicted
• (C) No, Section 261 applies to negligent suffering of escape, not deliberate releases
• (D) No, Section 261 applies only to escapes during official transport

42.What is the maximum term of imprisonment provided under Section 262 for resisting lawful apprehension or escaping lawful custody?

• (A) Imprisonment which may extend to one year.
• (B) Imprisonment which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
• (C) Imprisonment which may extend to five years.
• (D) No imprisonment, only a fine is prescribed.

43.Which of the following acts is punishable under Section 263 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

• (A) Intentionally offering resistance or illegal obstruction to the lawful apprehension of another person only
• (B) Rescuing or attempting to rescue a person from lawful custody only
• (C) Either intentionally offering resistance/illegal obstruction to a lawful apprehension, or rescuing/attempting to rescue a person from lawful custody
• (D) Any obstruction to lawful activities by a public servant

44.Under Section 264 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, who is liable for punishment for omitting to apprehend or suffering escape?

• (A) A public servant who is legally bound as such public servant to apprehend or to keep in confinement that person.
• (B) Any public servant, regardless of whether they are legally bound to apprehend or keep the person in confinement.
• (C) Any person who assists in the escape of a confined person.
• (D) Only the officer in charge of a prison or detention facility.

45.Which statement correctly captures the requisites for punishment under Section 264?

• (A) Any public servant is punishable under Section 264 whenever any person escapes confinement, irrespective of duty.
• (B) Section 264 applies only when the escape is from lawful custody in a police station.
• (C) A public servant is punishable under Section 264 only if he is legally bound as such public servant to apprehend or keep the person in confinement, and the omission may be intentional (punishable up to three years or fine) or negligent (punishable by simple imprisonment up to two years or fine).
• (D) Section 264 applies even where another law already provides for the omission to apprehend or suffering of escape.

46.If a person deliberately resists the lawful apprehension of another person (i.e., tries to prevent police from arresting a third party), is that conduct punishable under Section 265?

• (A) Yes — the section penalises resistance to the lawful apprehension of himself or of any other person
• (B) No — the section applies only when the person resists his own apprehension
• (C) Only if the rescuer is also detained later
• (D) Only if the other person ultimately escapes custody

47.A prisoner accepted conditional remission, served part of the original sentence, and then knowingly breached the remission condition. Under Section 266, what punishment is prescribed?

• (A) He shall be punished with the full original sentence again.
• (B) He shall receive no further punishment; only the remission is revoked.
• (C) He shall be punished with so much of that punishment as he has not already suffered.
• (D) He shall be punished with a punishment equal to what he already served.

48.Section 267 applies to insult or interruption of a public servant when:

• (A) It applies whenever the public servant is insulted or interrupted, regardless of context
• (B) It applies only if the public servant holds the office of a judge
• (C) The public servant is sitting in any stage of a judicial proceeding
• (D) It applies only if the insult or interruption occurs outside the courtroom

49.Which mental states are explicitly required by Section 268 for criminal liability?

• (A) Intentional or knowing conduct
• (B) Strict liability (no mental state required)
• (C) Recklessness
• (D) Negligence

50.Under Section 269 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following describes the offence created by the provision?

• (A) Failing without sufficient cause to appear in Court in accordance with the terms of the bail or bond after being charged and released on bail/bond.
• (B) Failing to appear in Court after conviction for an offence.
• (C) Failing to pay a fine imposed on conviction for the offence with which one was charged.
• (D) Committing a new offence while on bail which leads to cancellation of the bail bond.