Practice paper — BNS Chapter XI — Of Offences Against The Public Tranquillity

1.Under Section 189(1) BNS, what is the minimum number of persons required to constitute an 'unlawful assembly'?

• (A) Two
• (B) Seven
• (C) Ten
• (D) Five

2.Which of the following is NOT one of the common objects that renders an assembly 'unlawful' under Section 189(1) BNS?

• (A) To resist the execution of any law or of any legal process
• (B) To peacefully assemble to petition a public servant for redress of grievances
• (C) To overawe by criminal force, or show of criminal force, the Central Government or any State Government
• (D) By means of criminal force, or show of criminal force, to enforce any right or supposed right

3.A group of five persons gathers lawfully for a meeting, but midway they resolve to use criminal force to take possession of a neighbour's property. Under Section 189 BNS:

• (A) The assembly remains lawful because it was lawful when it assembled
• (B) Only the person who proposed the plan is liable
• (C) The assembly may subsequently become an unlawful assembly, as the Explanation to sub-section (1) expressly provides
• (D) The assembly is unlawful only if it exceeds ten persons

4.Under Section 189(4) BNS, a member of an unlawful assembly who is armed with a deadly weapon, or with anything which used as a weapon of offence is likely to cause death, shall be punished with:

• (A) Imprisonment of either description up to two years, or fine, or both
• (B) Imprisonment up to six months only
• (C) Imprisonment up to seven years and fine
• (D) Imprisonment for life

5.An assembly of five or more persons likely to cause a disturbance of the public peace is lawfully commanded to disperse, but X knowingly continues in it. If the assembly is also an 'unlawful assembly' within the meaning of Section 189(1) BNS, under which provision is X punishable?

• (A) Under Section 189(5), with imprisonment up to six months
• (B) Under Section 189(3), with imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both, as the Explanation to sub-section (5) directs
• (C) Under Section 189(4), because continuing after a dispersal order is treated as being armed
• (D) Under both sub-sections (3) and (5) cumulatively

6.Under Section 190 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, which of the following must have occurred for the provision to apply?

• (A) An offence committed by any member of an unlawful assembly
• (B) An offence committed only by the leader of the assembly
• (C) An offence committed by any person outside the assembly
• (D) At least two members committing an offence together

7.Who does Section 190 declare guilty when an offence is committed in prosecution of the common object of an unlawful assembly?

• (A) Only the member who actually committed the offence
• (B) Every person who, at the time of the committing of that offence, is a member of the same assembly
• (C) Only members who planned the offence beforehand
• (D) Only those who actively participated in carrying out the offence

8.If an offence committed by a member is neither in prosecution of the assembly's common object nor such as the members knew to be likely, what does Section 190 imply about the guilt of other members who were present at the time?

• (A) All other members are guilty regardless
• (B) Only those who aided are guilty
• (C) Other members are not made guilty under this section
• (D) All members are automatically punished even if offence unrelated

9.An offence committed by a member is not literally the assembly's declared common object, but it was an act that the members knew was likely to be committed in prosecution of that object. Under Section 190, who is liable?

• (A) Only the actual offender
• (B) Only members who expressly approved the offence
• (C) No member is liable as it is not the exact common object
• (D) Every person who was a member at the time of the offence is guilty

10.A person joins the unlawful assembly immediately after an offence has been committed by a member. Under Section 190, is that late-joiner guilty for the offence committed earlier?

• (A) No; the provision requires the person to be a member at the time of committing that offence
• (B) Yes; any member of the assembly is guilty irrespective of time of joining
• (C) Yes; but only if they later participated in a similar offence
• (D) No; unless they had prior knowledge of the offence

11.Under Section 191, when is the offence of rioting committed?

• (A) When force or violence is used by any individual regardless of association
• (B) When force or violence is used by an unlawful assembly or by any member thereof in prosecution of the common object of such assembly
• (C) Whenever more than five persons gather together
• (D) When police use force to disperse a crowd

12.What is the punishment for rioting under Section 191(2)?

• (A) Imprisonment which may extend to one year, or fine, or both
• (B) Imprisonment which may extend to three years, or fine, or both
• (C) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both
• (D) Imprisonment which may extend to five years, or fine, or both

13.If some members of an unlawful assembly use force in prosecution of the assembly's common object but other members did not personally use force, who is guilty of rioting under Section 191(1)?

• (A) Every member of such assembly is guilty of the offence of rioting
• (B) Only those members who personally used force are guilty
• (C) Only those who planned the use of force are guilty
• (D) Only the member who used a weapon is guilty

14.Under Section 191(3), which statement about the elevated punishment is correct?

• (A) The weapon must actually be used to cause death for the higher sentence to apply
• (B) Only if death results does the punishment extend to five years
• (C) The higher punishment applies only when multiple members are armed with deadly weapons
• (D) Being armed with a deadly weapon or with anything which, used as a weapon of offence, is likely to cause death suffices to attract punishment up to five years

15.If force used by a member of an unlawful assembly is unrelated to the assembly's common object, what does Section 191 provide about guilt for rioting?

• (A) Section 191 makes every member guilty in any event
• (B) Only the individual who used force is guilty under Section 191
• (C) Section 191 does not make members guilty of rioting because the force must be in prosecution of the common object
• (D) Section 191 automatically upgrades the offence to armed rioting

16.Under Section 192 (Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023), which mental state is required for the person who gives provocation?

• (A) Malignantly, or wantonly, by doing anything illegal, with intent or knowledge that such provocation is likely to cause rioting
• (B) Mere negligence in causing provocation without any knowledge of likely rioting
• (C) Accidental conduct that unintentionally provokes a crowd
• (D) Only premeditated malice (malice aforethought) to cause grievous harm

17.What is the maximum imprisonment prescribed by Section 192 if rioting is committed in consequence of the provocation?

• (A) Six months
• (B) One year
• (C) Two years
• (D) Three years

18.Must the act giving provocation be illegal for liability under Section 192?

• (A) No — lawful acts that provoke may also attract liability under this section
• (B) Only if accompanied by physical violence
• (C) Yes — the provision requires doing anything which is illegal to give provocation
• (D) Only if the provocation causes bodily harm

19.Does Section 192 require the provocation to be given both 'malignantly' and 'wantonly' for liability to arise?

• (A) Yes — both descriptors must be present together
• (B) No — either malignantly or wantonly suffices
• (C) Neither is required; any provocation suffices
• (D) Only 'malignantly' is sufficient, not 'wantonly'

20.Which statement correctly states when the higher punishment (up to one year) under Section 192 applies?

• (A) It applies whenever rioting occurs after any provocation, regardless of causal connection
• (B) It applies only if the provoker personally participates in the rioting
• (C) It applies when rioting is not committed as a result of the provocation
• (D) It applies when the offence of rioting is committed in consequence of such provocation

21.What is the maximum fine prescribed under Section 193 for the liabilities described in subsection (1)?

• (A) Fine not exceeding one thousand rupees
• (B) Fine not exceeding five thousand rupees
• (C) Fine not exceeding ten thousand rupees
• (D) Imprisonment up to six months

22.Under subsection (1), who is primarily required to give the earliest notice to the officer in charge at the nearest police station when an unlawful assembly or riot takes place on land?

• (A) Any bystander witnessing the offence
• (B) The owner or occupier of the land, or any person having or claiming an interest in such land
• (C) A magistrate
• (D) Only the police constable in charge of the locality

23.Which of the following best describes when liability arises under subsection (1) for an owner/occupier or person claiming interest?

• (A) Liability arises only if the person fails to give notice, irrespective of using lawful means.
• (B) Liability arises only if the person fails to disperse a riot after it occurs.
• (C) Liability arises where the person (or his agent/manager), knowing or having reason to believe of the offence, does not give the earliest notice and does not use all lawful means as applicable to prevent or disperse the assembly or riot.
• (D) Liability arises automatically whenever an unlawful assembly occurs on the land, regardless of the person's knowledge or actions.

24.Under subsection (2), when is a person (for whose benefit a riot was committed or who has accepted a benefit) punishable?

• (A) Only if he personally had direct knowledge of the riot while it occurred
• (B) Only if the magistrate finds him guilty irrespective of his or his agent's belief
• (C) Only if his agent or manager personally instigated the riot
• (D) If he or his agent or manager, having reason to believe the riot or unlawful assembly was likely, did not use all lawful means in their power to prevent or to suppress and disperse it

25.A riot was committed for the benefit of X. X himself had no reason to believe the riot was likely, but X's agent did have reason to believe and failed to use lawful means to prevent it. Under the provision, who may be punishable?

• (A) Both X (the person for whose benefit) and the agent
• (B) Only the agent
• (C) Only X (the person for whose benefit)
• (D) Neither, since X personally had no reason to believe

26.According to Section 194(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following best defines 'affray'?:

• (A) Fighting in a public place by two or more persons that disturbs the public peace.
• (B) Any violent act by a single person in a public place.
• (C) Verbal abuse in a public place that offends people.
• (D) An unlawful assembly of five or more people in a public place.

27.What is the minimum number of persons required to commit an affray under Section 194(1)?

• (A) One person
• (B) Two persons
• (C) Three persons
• (D) Four persons

28.If three persons fight in a public place but their actions do not disturb the public peace, have they committed an affray under Section 194(1)?

• (A) Yes, because fighting in a public place alone suffices.
• (B) Yes, but only if police intervene.
• (C) No, because disturbance of the public peace is a required element.
• (D) Only if property is damaged during the fight.

29.Under Section 194(1), does conduct consisting only of threats (no fighting) in a public place that disturbs public peace constitute an affray?

• (A) Yes, threats that disturb peace are affray.
• (B) Yes, if more than two persons issue the threats.
• (C) Only if the threats lead to physical injury.
• (D) No, because the provision requires 'fighting' as the mode of disturbance.

30.Which of the following sentences would NOT be permissible under Section 194(2) for committing an affray?

• (A) Imprisonment of two months alone.
• (B) Imprisonment of 15 days and a fine of Rs.500.
• (C) No imprisonment but a fine of Rs.1,000.
• (D) Imprisonment of one month together with a fine of Rs.1,000.

31.What is the maximum term of imprisonment for a person who assaults or uses criminal force on a public servant in the discharge of his duty while endeavouring to disperse an unlawful assembly or to suppress a riot or affray?

• (A) One year
• (B) Six months
• (C) Three years
• (D) Five years

32.According to the provision, what minimum fine is prescribed for assaulting or obstructing a public servant while they are endeavouring to disperse an unlawful assembly or suppress a riot or affray?

• (A) Not less than twenty‑five thousand rupees
• (B) Fifty thousand rupees
• (C) No minimum fine prescribed
• (D) Ten thousand rupees

33.If a person threatens to assault a public servant who is suppressing a riot, what is the maximum imprisonment provided by the provision?

• (A) Up to three years
• (B) Up to one year
• (C) Up to two years
• (D) No imprisonment, only fine

34.A person obstructs a public servant who is performing administrative duties unrelated to dispersing an unlawful assembly or suppressing a riot. Does Section 195 apply?

• (A) Yes — it applies to obstruction of any public servant irrespective of duty
• (B) Yes — but only if a threat accompanied the obstruction
• (C) No — Section 195 applies only when the public servant is endeavouring to disperse an unlawful assembly or suppress a riot or affray
• (D) Yes — it applies if the public servant later reports the obstruction

35.A person makes an attempt to strike (but does not touch) a public servant who is suppressing an affray. Under which part of Section 195 is this conduct punishable?

• (A) Sub‑section (1), as it is an assault with criminal force attracting up to three years and minimum fine
• (B) Sub‑section (2), as an attempt to use criminal force or attempt to assault attracting up to one year or fine
• (C) Not punishable under Section 195 because no physical contact was made
• (D) Only punishable if the attempt involved a verbal threat

36.Section 196(1)(a) BNS penalises promoting or attempting to promote disharmony or feelings of enmity, hatred or ill-will between different groups on which of the following grounds?

• (A) Religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, caste or community or any other ground whatsoever
• (B) Religion and caste only
• (C) Political affiliation and economic status only
• (D) Nationality and citizenship only

37.What is the punishment for the offence of promoting enmity between different groups under Section 196(1) BNS?

• (A) Imprisonment up to seven years and mandatory fine
• (B) Imprisonment for life
• (C) Imprisonment which may extend to three years, or fine, or both
• (D) Simple imprisonment up to one month or fine up to five thousand rupees

38.A delivers a speech promoting hatred between two religious communities inside a temple during a religious ceremony. Under Section 196(2) BNS, A shall be punished with:

• (A) Imprisonment up to three years, or fine, or both, the same as in any other place
• (B) Imprisonment which may extend to five years, and A shall also be liable to fine
• (C) Fine only, since the speech occurred in a religious setting
• (D) Imprisonment which may extend to ten years

39.X organises a drill in which participants are trained to use criminal force against members of a particular religious community, and the activity causes a feeling of insecurity amongst members of that community. Which clause of Section 196(1) BNS covers X's act?

• (A) Clause (a), since a drill is a visible representation
• (B) Clause (b), since a drill always disturbs public tranquillity
• (C) Section 196(2), since drills are treated as religious ceremonies
• (D) Clause (c), which penalises organising any exercise, movement, drill or similar activity involving training in criminal force or violence against a group, causing fear, alarm or insecurity

40.Which additional element must be established for an act to fall under Section 196(1)(b) BNS that is NOT required under Section 196(1)(a)?

• (A) That the act was committed through electronic communication
• (B) That the act was committed in a place of worship
• (C) That the act, besides being prejudicial to the maintenance of harmony between groups, disturbs or is likely to disturb the public tranquillity
• (D) That the accused belonged to one of the affected communities

41.Section 197(1)(a) BNS penalises making or publishing an imputation that any class of persons, by reason of their membership of a religious, racial, language or regional group or caste or community:

• (A) Should be granted special reservations in public employment
• (B) Cannot bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established or uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
• (C) Should migrate to another State
• (D) Cannot vote in general elections

42.What punishment does Section 197(1) BNS prescribe for making imputations or assertions prejudicial to national integration?

• (A) Imprisonment up to seven years and fine
• (B) Imprisonment for life and fine
• (C) Fine only
• (D) Imprisonment which may extend to three years, or fine, or both

43.X publishes information on social media which he knows to be false and which jeopardises the sovereignty, unity and integrity or security of India. Which clause of Section 197(1) BNS covers this act?

• (A) Clause (d), which penalises making or publishing false or misleading information jeopardising the sovereignty, unity and integrity or security of India
• (B) Clause (a), which deals with imputations about allegiance to the Constitution
• (C) Clause (b), which deals with denial of citizens' rights
• (D) No clause, since online publication is outside the section

44.If an offence under Section 197(1) BNS is committed inside a place of worship or in an assembly engaged in religious worship or ceremonies, the offender shall be punished with:

• (A) The same punishment as under sub-section (1), since the venue is irrelevant
• (B) Imprisonment up to ten years
• (C) Imprisonment which may extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine
• (D) Community service and fine

45.Which clause of Section 197(1) BNS requires proof of a consequence, namely that the statement causes or is likely to cause disharmony or feelings of enmity or hatred or ill-will between the members of the class concerned and other persons?

• (A) Clause (a), relating to imputations about allegiance to the Constitution
• (B) Clause (c), relating to assertions, counsels, pleas or appeals concerning the obligation of any class of persons
• (C) Clause (b), relating to assertions that a class shall be denied rights as citizens
• (D) All four clauses require this consequence