Practice paper — BNS Chapter VI — Of Offences Affecting The Human Body

1.Under Section 100 BNS, culpable homicide is committed when a person causes death by doing an act with—

• (A) The intention of causing death, or the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or the knowledge that the act is likely to cause death
• (B) Negligence alone
• (C) Only a premeditated design to kill
• (D) Any unlawful intention whatsoever

2.Under Explanation 3 to Section 100 BNS, which statement about the death of a child is correct?

• (A) Causing the death of a child in the mother's womb is not homicide, but causing the death of a living child may amount to culpable homicide if any part of the child has been brought forth, even though the child has not breathed or been completely born
• (B) Causing the death of a child in the womb is always culpable homicide
• (C) Causing the death of a partly born child is culpable homicide only if the child has breathed
• (D) The death of a child can amount to culpable homicide only after complete birth

3.A strikes Z, knowing Z suffers from a disease such that the blow is likely to cause his death, intending only bodily injury; Z dies. Had A not known of the disease, the same blow would not ordinarily kill a healthy person. Which analysis under Section 101 BNS is correct?

• (A) A is guilty of murder in both situations, since death in fact resulted
• (B) With knowledge of the disease A is guilty of murder under clause (b); without that knowledge he is not guilty of murder, as he intended neither death nor an injury sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death
• (C) A is not guilty of murder in either situation because the blow was not ordinarily fatal
• (D) A's liability depends solely on whether the injury was sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death

4.Which statement best captures the legal effect provided by Section 102?

• (A) The legal characterization of culpable homicide is determined by characteristics of the actual deceased
• (B) The provision applies only when the actual victim was unknown at the time of the act
• (C) The culpable homicide is of the description it would have been if the death of the person whose death the actor intended or knew to be likely had occurred
• (D) The provision requires the actor to have intended the death of the actual victim

5.Which of the following grounds is NOT expressly enumerated in Section 103(2) of the BNS as a basis for group murder?

• (A) Political affiliation
• (B) Place of birth
• (C) Language
• (D) Personal belief

6.Under Section 104, what is the meaning of the phrase "imprisonment for life" when imposed as punishment?

• (A) A fixed term of 20 years
• (B) A fixed term as specified by the court
• (C) Until remission under prison rules
• (D) The remainder of that person’s natural life

7.A does an act knowing it is likely to cause death, but with no intention to cause death or bodily injury likely to cause death, and the act causes death amounting to culpable homicide not amounting to murder. Which punishment limb of Section 105 BNS applies?

• (A) Imprisonment for life, or five to ten years, and fine
• (B) Imprisonment up to ten years and fine
• (C) Death or imprisonment for life
• (D) Imprisonment up to five years or fine or both

8.Section 106(2) BNS prescribes imprisonment up to ten years for causing death by rash and negligent driving of a vehicle when the offender:

• (A) Was driving without a valid licence
• (B) Escapes without reporting the incident to a police officer or a Magistrate soon after
• (C) Was driving under the influence of alcohol
• (D) Causes the death of more than one person

9.If a person of sound mind (not delirious, not intoxicated, and not a child) commits suicide after being abetted, does Section 107 apply to the abettor?

• (A) Yes — Section 107 applies to any abetted suicide
• (B) Yes — but only if the abettor acted with intent to kill
• (C) No — Section 107 applies only where the suicide is by a child, person of unsound mind, delirious person or person in a state of intoxication
• (D) Only if the person was a minor

10.Which two ingredients must both be established for an offence under Section 108 BNS?

• (A) Attempt to commit suicide and presence of the accused
• (B) Commission of suicide by a person and abetment of that suicide by the accused
• (C) Instigation to suicide and a written suicide note
• (D) Cruelty by the accused and death of the victim

11.What is the maximum punishment prescribed by Section 109(1) where the act does not cause hurt to any person?

• (A) Imprisonment for life and fine.
• (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and liable to fine.
• (C) Death penalty.
• (D) No punishment unless death ensues.

12.What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed by Section 110 where no hurt is caused by the act?

• (A) One year
• (B) Five years
• (C) Three years
• (D) Seven years

13.Under Section 111(2)(a) BNS, if the commission of organised crime results in the death of any person, the offender shall be punished with:

• (A) Imprisonment for life only and fine of five lakh rupees
• (B) Imprisonment of not less than five years and fine
• (C) Rigorous imprisonment of ten years and fine of two lakh rupees
• (D) Death or imprisonment for life, and fine not less than ten lakh rupees

14.According to Section 112(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following best describes 'petty organised crime'?

• (A) Any act of theft or similar listed offences committed by a person who is a member of a group or gang, whether committed singly or jointly.
• (B) Any act of theft or similar listed offences committed by any individual, regardless of group membership.
• (C) Only offences committed jointly by all members of a group or gang.
• (D) Only large-scale organised offences involving multiple gangs.

15.Under Section 113(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, which mental state is expressly required for an act to be a 'terrorist act'?

• (A) Intent to threaten the unity, integrity, sovereignty, security, or economic security of India or to strike terror in the people
• (B) Intent to cause private financial gain
• (C) Intent to offend religious sentiments
• (D) Intent to commit a simple theft

16.According to Section 114, which of the following acts constitutes 'hurt'?

• (A) Causing bodily pain, disease or infirmity to any person
• (B) Causing only mental anguish without bodily harm
• (C) Damaging another person's property
• (D) Making insulting remarks that hurt someone's feelings

17.If a person causes bodily pain to themselves, does Section 114 describe that as 'hurt'?

• (A) Yes, because 'any person' can include the person who causes it
• (B) No, because 'whoever causes' implies some other person must be harmed
• (C) Only if another person assisted in causing the pain
• (D) Only if the self-inflicted pain occurs during the commission of another offence

18.A performs an act carelessly, with neither the intention of causing hurt nor the knowledge that he is likely to cause hurt, but hurt results to B. Which statement is correct under Section 115 BNS?

• (A) A has voluntarily caused hurt because hurt in fact resulted
• (B) A is liable under Section 115(2) but with fine only
• (C) A has voluntarily caused hurt if B files a complaint
• (D) A has not voluntarily caused hurt, since Section 115(1) requires intention or knowledge in addition to the causing of hurt

19.Which of the following listed kinds of hurt in Section 116 does not include the word "permanent" and therefore can be grievous without an express permanence qualifier?

• (A) Emasculation
• (B) Permanent privation of the sight of either eye
• (C) Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth
• (D) Permanent disfiguration of the head or face

20.Under Section 117(3) BNS, where the offence causes the victim to be in permanent disability or a persistent vegetative state, the punishment is:

• (A) Rigorous imprisonment of not less than ten years, extendable to imprisonment for life meaning the remainder of that person's natural life
• (B) Simple imprisonment of not less than seven years extendable to fourteen years
• (C) Death or imprisonment for life
• (D) Rigorous imprisonment of not less than five years and fine of ten lakh rupees

21.Which statement correctly describes the relationship between Section 118 and Section 122 as shown in the text of Section 118?

• (A) Section 118 is subject to specified exceptions provided by the corresponding sub-sections of Section 122
• (B) Section 118 applies even where Section 122 provides a case
• (C) Section 122 increases the punishment provided in Section 118
• (D) Section 122 repeals Section 118 entirely

22.Is life imprisonment mandatory upon conviction under Section 119(2) for causing grievous hurt to extort property or constrain an illegal act?

• (A) Yes, Section 119(2) mandates life imprisonment in all such cases
• (B) No, Section 119(2) prescribes either life imprisonment or imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, at the court's discretion
• (C) Yes, but only if the extorted property is a valuable security
• (D) No, Section 119(2) prescribes only imprisonment up to ten years

23.If a person voluntarily causes grievous hurt for any purpose referred to in sub‑section (1), the punishment under Section 120 is:

• (A) Imprisonment up to seven years and fine
• (B) Imprisonment for life
• (C) Imprisonment up to three years and fine
• (D) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to ten years, and liable to fine

24.X voluntarily causes hurt to public servant A with the intention of deterring another public servant, B, from discharging B's official duty. Under Section 121(1) BNS:

• (A) X is liable, since the section covers intent to deter 'that person or any other public servant' from discharging his duty
• (B) X is not liable, since the hurt and the intended deterrence must relate to the same public servant
• (C) X is liable only under the general provision for voluntarily causing hurt
• (D) X is liable only if B was present at the scene

25.Which mental element must the accused lack to avail Section 122's lesser punishment on provocation?

• (A) He must lack intent to cause hurt to the person who gave the provocation.
• (B) He must neither intend nor know himself to be likely to cause hurt to any person other than the person who gave the provocation.
• (C) He must be unaware that he was provoked.
• (D) He must lack intent only where the hurt is grievous, but not where it is simple hurt.

26.Which of the following scenarios falls squarely within the scope of Section 123?

• (A) Threatening a person but not providing any substance
• (B) Forcing another person to consume an intoxicating drug to facilitate the commission of an offence
• (C) Administering a harmless medicine without any intent to hurt or to facilitate an offence
• (D) Administering a substance but completely unknowingly and without intent or knowledge

27.A person attempts to throw acid on another but is unsuccessful and causes no permanent injury. Under subsection (2), what is the minimum imprisonment for such an attempt?

• (A) Imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than five years.
• (B) Imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than ten years.
• (C) Imprisonment for life.
• (D) No imprisonment; only a fine is imposed for attempt.

28.If the act causes hurt (but not grievous hurt), what is the maximum term of imprisonment under Section 125?

• (A) Three months
• (B) One year
• (C) Three years
• (D) Six months

29.Which of the following situations is protected by the Exception to Section 126 BNS and is therefore NOT wrongful restraint?

• (A) Obstructing a public highway believing traffic rules permit it
• (B) Obstructing a person who the obstructor believes owes him money
• (C) Obstructing a path knowing fully well that one has no right to stop it
• (D) Obstructing a private way over land or water which a person in good faith believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct

30.What is the basic punishment for wrongful confinement under Section 127(2) BNS?

• (A) Simple imprisonment up to one month, or fine up to five thousand rupees, or both
• (B) Imprisonment up to three years and fine not less than ten thousand rupees
• (C) Imprisonment up to two years in addition to any other term
• (D) Imprisonment of either description up to one year, or fine up to five thousand rupees, or both

31.Which of the following methods are explicitly included in the proviso as ways by which the person may cause the motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion?

• (A) Only by his own bodily power
• (B) By his own bodily power or by disposing a substance only
• (C) By his own bodily power, by disposing any substance so motion takes place without further act, or by inducing an animal
• (D) Only by inducing an animal

32.Which illustration in Section 129 specifically shows 'use of force' produced by disposing substances so that motion is produced without any other person's action?

• (A) A lashes Z’s horses, thereby causing the chariot to quicken its pace.
• (B) A unfastens the moorings of Z’s moored boat, causing it to drift down the stream.
• (C) A seizes the pole of Z’s palanquin and stops it.
• (D) A intentionally pushes against Z in the street.

33.Under Section 130 (Assault) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, which of the following best describes an assault?

• (A) Making any gesture or preparation intending or knowing it likely will cause any person present to apprehend that the actor is about to use criminal force
• (B) Any spoken threat, without any accompanying gesture or preparation
• (C) Any physical contact that causes injury
• (D) Preparation to commit an offence when no one is present to observe it

34.Which conduct is specifically punished under Section 131 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

• (A) Assault or use of criminal force otherwise than on grave and sudden provocation
• (B) Causing grievous hurt
• (C) Assault only when grave and sudden provocation exists
• (D) Murder or attempt to murder

35.What is the maximum term of imprisonment prescribed by Section 132 for assaulting or using criminal force against a public servant as provided?

• (A) Imprisonment which may extend to two years
• (B) Imprisonment which may extend to five years
• (C) Imprisonment which may extend to seven years
• (D) Life imprisonment

36.A person assaults a public servant in retaliation for a lawful act previously done or attempted by that public servant. Is this conduct punishable under Section 132?

• (A) Yes, because Section 132 covers assault "in consequence of anything done or attempted to be done by such person in the lawful discharge of his duty"
• (B) No, because Section 132 only covers assaults occurring during the performance of duty
• (C) No, unless the assault occurred at the very time of the lawful act
• (D) Yes, but only if the assault prevents the public servant from performing future duties

37.Does Section 133 require actual dishonour to have occurred for punishment to follow?

• (A) Yes — actual dishonour must have occurred as a result of the act
• (B) No — the provision requires the assailant to have intended to dishonour, irrespective of whether dishonour actually occurred
• (C) Yes — either actual dishonour or proof of intention is required
• (D) No — neither intention nor actual dishonour is required; only assault or criminal force suffices

38.If A assaults X while trying to steal a bag that Y is carrying (i.e., the assault is on X but the attempted theft targets Y's carried property), does Section 134 apply to that conduct?

• (A) No — the assaulted person must be the one wearing or carrying the property targeted in the attempt
• (B) Yes — any assault during an attempt to steal another's carried property is covered
• (C) Yes — because the provision covers assault to any person in the course of such attempts, regardless of whose property
• (D) No — only if X was the owner of the property would it apply

39.May a court impose both imprisonment and fine for an offence under Section 135?

• (A) No — only imprisonment is permitted
• (B) Yes — but not both together
• (C) No — only a fine is permitted
• (D) Yes — the court may impose imprisonment, fine, or both

40.Which of the following best follows from the wording of Section 136 regarding the nature of provocation required for its application?

• (A) Both 'grave' and 'sudden' provocation are required for this section to apply
• (B) Only 'grave' provocation is required; suddenness is irrelevant
• (C) Only 'sudden' provocation is required; gravity is irrelevant
• (D) No specific requirement of 'grave' or 'sudden' provocation exists

41.The Explanation to Section 137(1)(b) BNS clarifies that the words 'lawful guardian' include:

• (A) Only the biological parents of the child
• (B) Any person lawfully entrusted with the care or custody of such child or other person
• (C) Any adult relative of the child, whether or not entrusted with custody
• (D) Only a guardian appointed by a court

42.Which of the following correctly distinguishes abduction under Section 138 BNS from kidnapping from lawful guardianship under Section 137(1)(b) BNS?

• (A) Abduction may be committed against any person and requires force or deceit, whereas kidnapping from guardianship concerns a child or person of unsound mind taken without the guardian's consent
• (B) Abduction applies only to minors, while kidnapping applies to adults
• (C) Abduction requires taking the person beyond the limits of India
• (D) Abduction requires the consent of the lawful guardian

43.According to Section 139(3), if a person who is not the lawful guardian employs a child for begging, what legal presumption arises?

• (A) It is conclusively presumed that the person is the child's lawful guardian
• (B) It is presumed, unless the contrary is proved, that he kidnapped or otherwise obtained the custody of the child in order that the child might be employed for begging
• (C) There is no presumption; prosecution must prove kidnapping or custody separately
• (D) It is presumed that the child consented to beg

44.A kidnaps Z with the intent to cause Z to be secretly and wrongfully confined. Under Section 140(3) BNS, A is punishable with:

• (A) Imprisonment for life or rigorous imprisonment up to ten years
• (B) Imprisonment of either description up to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine
• (C) Death or imprisonment for life
• (D) Imprisonment up to two years, or fine, or both

45.Section 141 applies to a girl who is which of the following ages?

• (A) Under the age of eighteen years
• (B) Under the age of twenty-one years
• (C) Under the age of sixteen years
• (D) Under the age of twenty-five years

46.According to Section 142, the punishment for wrongfully concealing or confining a kidnapped or abducted person is:

• (A) A lesser punishment than for kidnapping or abduction.
• (B) Only a fine.
• (C) The same as if he had kidnapped or abducted that person with the same intention, knowledge, or purpose.
• (D) Imprisonment only if the person dies in confinement.

47.What is the minimum sentence prescribed for the offence of trafficking under Section 143(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita?

• (A) Rigorous imprisonment for not less than three years
• (B) Rigorous imprisonment for not less than five years
• (C) Rigorous imprisonment for not less than seven years
• (D) Rigorous imprisonment for not less than ten years

48.Under Section 144(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the prescribed punishment for whoever, knowingly or having reason to believe that a child has been trafficked, engages such child for sexual exploitation?

• (A) Rigorous imprisonment for not less than five years and which may extend to ten years, and also liable to fine.
• (B) Rigorous imprisonment for not less than three years and which may extend to seven years, and also liable to fine.
• (C) Imprisonment for up to five years and may be fined.
• (D) Only a fine, with no mandatory imprisonment term.

49.Under Section 145 (Habitual dealing in slaves), which of the following activities is expressly criminalized?

• (A) Importing slaves
• (B) Kidnapping a free person for ransom
• (C) Buying stolen property
• (D) Hiring labourers under a contract

50.Which of the following best describes the act prohibited by Section 146 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (Unlawful compulsory labour)?

• (A) Compelling any person to labour against that person’s will
• (B) Requiring payment of a debt by force
• (C) Preventing a person from leaving a place
• (D) Refusing to employ a person on discriminatory grounds